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Question 1
ప్రశ్న 1
Which CPU register normally contains the address of the next instruction to be fetched for execution?
Explanation:
• The Program Counter stores the address of the next instruction to be fetched or executed according to the processor's control flow.
• Its value normally advances as instructions are fetched, but branch, jump or interrupt operations can change it.
• The Instruction Register instead holds the instruction currently being decoded or executed.
• Its value normally advances as instructions are fetched, but branch, jump or interrupt operations can change it.
• The Instruction Register instead holds the instruction currently being decoded or executed.
వివరణ:
Question 2
ప్రశ్న 2
Which statement about the normal startup role of UEFI firmware is correct?
Explanation:
• UEFI firmware begins operating during the early startup process before the operating system is loaded.
• It initializes or coordinates hardware startup and identifies an appropriate boot entry or boot device.
• User sign-in and application execution occur much later in the startup sequence.
• It initializes or coordinates hardware startup and identifies an appropriate boot entry or boot device.
• User sign-in and application execution occur much later in the startup sequence.
వివరణ:
Question 3
ప్రశ్న 3
Five identical 2 TB drives are configured as a conventional RAID 6 array. Ignoring formatting and metadata overhead, which combination correctly gives the approximate usable capacity and normal drive-failure tolerance?
Explanation:
• Conventional RAID 6 usable capacity is approximately (N−2) times the capacity of the smallest member drive.
• With five 2 TB drives, (5−2)×2 TB = 6 TB usable capacity.
• Dual parity allows RAID 6 to normally tolerate failure of any two member drives.
• With five 2 TB drives, (5−2)×2 TB = 6 TB usable capacity.
• Dual parity allows RAID 6 to normally tolerate failure of any two member drives.
వివరణ:
Question 4
ప్రశ్న 4
Which statement correctly distinguishes an SMPS from a UPS in a desktop-computer environment?
Explanation:
• The desktop SMPS converts incoming electrical power into regulated DC outputs needed by internal computer components.
• A UPS provides temporary backup power and can help protect against certain power interruptions.
• The devices therefore perform complementary but different power-related functions.
• A UPS provides temporary backup power and can help protect against certain power interruptions.
• The devices therefore perform complementary but different power-related functions.
వివరణ:
Question 5
ప్రశ్న 5
In a laser printer, which component uses heat and pressure to permanently bond toner particles to the paper?
Explanation:
• The fuser assembly uses heat and pressure to fuse toner onto the paper surface.
• Toner has already been transferred to the page before it reaches the fuser stage.
• Inkjet print-head nozzles belong to a different printer technology.
• Toner has already been transferred to the page before it reaches the fuser stage.
• Inkjet print-head nozzles belong to a different printer technology.
వివరణ:
Question 6
ప్రశ్న 6
A PC was stable until two new RAM modules were installed. It now fails POST intermittently. What is the most appropriate first troubleshooting approach?
Explanation:
• The fault began immediately after a RAM change, so the altered memory configuration should be investigated first.
• Testing individual compatible modules and slots helps isolate poor seating, a defective module or a problematic memory slot.
• Reinstalling Windows is inappropriate when the machine is failing during POST.
• Testing individual compatible modules and slots helps isolate poor seating, a defective module or a problematic memory slot.
• Reinstalling Windows is inappropriate when the machine is failing during POST.
వివరణ:
Question 7
ప్రశ్న 7
A running process requests disk input and must wait until the I/O operation completes. Which process-state transition normally occurs?
Explanation:
• A process that cannot continue until an I/O event completes normally enters a waiting or blocked state.
• While it waits, the operating system can schedule another ready process to use the CPU.
• When the required event completes, the process can normally become ready again.
• While it waits, the operating system can schedule another ready process to use the CPU.
• When the required event completes, the process can normally become ready again.
వివరణ:
Question 8
ప్రశ్న 8
What does a page fault normally indicate in a virtual-memory system?
Explanation:
• A page fault occurs when a process references a virtual page that is not presently mapped as resident in physical memory in the required way.
• The operating system handles the fault and may load the page from backing storage or perform another appropriate memory-management action.
• Page faults are part of virtual-memory operation and do not automatically indicate hardware failure.
• The operating system handles the fault and may load the page from backing storage or perform another appropriate memory-management action.
• Page faults are part of virtual-memory operation and do not automatically indicate hardware failure.
వివరణ:
Question 9
ప్రశ్న 9
Which DOS/Windows DIR command displays entries having the Hidden attribute?
Explanation:
• DIR /A allows directory entries to be selected according to attributes.
• H specifies the Hidden attribute, so DIR /A:H displays hidden files and directories that match the listing conditions.
• The command displays matching entries; it does not remove their Hidden attribute.
• H specifies the Hidden attribute, so DIR /A:H displays hidden files and directories that match the listing conditions.
• The command displays matching entries; it does not remove their Hidden attribute.
వివరణ:
Question 10
ప్రశ్న 10
Which statement most accurately describes Windows System Restore?
Explanation:
• System Restore is designed primarily to roll back system configuration and selected Windows components to an earlier restore point.
• It can be useful after problematic drivers, updates or configuration changes.
• It is not a substitute for an independent backup of personal files and other important data.
• It can be useful after problematic drivers, updates or configuration changes.
• It is not a substitute for an independent backup of personal files and other important data.
వివరణ:
Question 11
ప్రశ్న 11
Assertion (A): Transaction isolation is important when multiple database transactions execute concurrently.
Reason (R): Isolation controls how the intermediate and final effects of concurrent transactions are allowed to interact or become visible, helping execution behave according to the selected isolation guarantees.
Choose the correct answer.
Reason (R): Isolation controls how the intermediate and final effects of concurrent transactions are allowed to interact or become visible, helping execution behave according to the selected isolation guarantees.
Choose the correct answer.
Explanation:
• Concurrent transactions can interfere with one another if access to shared data is not controlled appropriately.
• Isolation defines restrictions on interactions and visibility between concurrent transactions.
• Both statements are true, and the Reason directly explains the importance of transaction isolation.
• Isolation defines restrictions on interactions and visibility between concurrent transactions.
• Both statements are true, and the Reason directly explains the importance of transaction isolation.
వివరణ:
Question 12
ప్రశ్న 12
Which statement most accurately defines a candidate key in a relational table?
Explanation:
• A candidate key uniquely identifies each row in a relation.
• It is minimal: removing an attribute from a composite candidate key would destroy the required uniqueness property.
• One candidate key may be selected as the primary key, while other candidate keys remain alternate keys.
• It is minimal: removing an attribute from a composite candidate key would destroy the required uniqueness property.
• One candidate key may be selected as the primary key, while other candidate keys remain alternate keys.
వివరణ:
Question 13
ప్రశ్న 13
One page in the middle of a Word document must use landscape orientation, while the pages before and after it must remain portrait. Which approach is most appropriate?
Explanation:
• Word section breaks allow different portions of one document to have independent page-layout settings.
• Placing the target page in its own section permits landscape orientation without changing the surrounding portrait sections.
• A normal page break changes page position but does not itself create an independently formatted section.
• Placing the target page in its own section permits landscape orientation without changing the surrounding portrait sections.
• A normal page break changes page position but does not itself create an independently formatted section.
వివరణ:
Question 14
ప్రశ్న 14
Which sequence correctly represents a typical Microsoft Word Mail Merge process?
Explanation:
• The main document contains the text and formatting common to every output document.
• The recipient data source is then connected and merge fields are positioned where variable data should appear.
• Previewing before Finish & Merge allows the generated documents to be checked before final output.
• The recipient data source is then connected and merge fields are positioned where variable data should appear.
• Previewing before Finish & Merge allows the generated documents to be checked before final output.
వివరణ:
Question 15
ప్రశ్న 15
Cell D4 contains the Excel formula =$B4+C$2. The formula is copied to F7. If B7 contains 12 and E2 contains 8, which formula and result are correct in F7?
Explanation:
• Copying from D4 to F7 moves the formula two columns right and three rows down.
• $B4 becomes $B7 because column B is fixed but the row is relative; C$2 becomes E$2 because row 2 is fixed but the column is relative.
• The resulting calculation is 12+8 = 20.
• $B4 becomes $B7 because column B is fixed but the row is relative; C$2 becomes E$2 because row 2 is fixed but the column is relative.
• The resulting calculation is 12+8 = 20.
వివరణ:
Question 16
ప్రశ్న 16
In Excel, B2:B6 contain {East, West, East, East, West}, C2:C6 contain {Closed, Open, Open, Closed, Open}, and D2:D6 contain {100, 200, 300, 400, 500}. What is returned by =SUMIFS(D2:D6,B2:B6,"East",C2:C6,"Closed")?
Explanation:
• SUMIFS includes only rows satisfying all specified criteria simultaneously.
• East and Closed occur together for the amounts 100 and 400.
• Therefore the result is 100+400 = 500.
• East and Closed occur together for the amounts 100 and 400.
• Therefore the result is 100+400 = 500.
వివరణ:
Question 17
ప్రశ్న 17
An Excel worksheet should permit entry in a Status column only from the values Open, Pending and Closed. Which feature is most appropriate?
Explanation:
• Data Validation can restrict what users are allowed to enter in selected cells.
• A List validation rule can provide a drop-down containing Open, Pending and Closed.
• This improves consistency by preventing arbitrary status values.
• A List validation rule can provide a drop-down containing Open, Pending and Closed.
• This improves consistency by preventing arbitrary status values.
వివరణ:
Question 18
ప్రశ్న 18
A PowerPoint presentation uses the same departmental logo, fonts and placeholder arrangement on dozens of slides. Which feature provides the most efficient centralized control of these common design elements?
Explanation:
• Slide Master and its associated layouts control common presentation-wide design and placeholder characteristics.
• Editing the master can update repeated elements without modifying every slide individually.
• Presenter View and Rehearse Timings are slide-show delivery tools rather than centralized design controls.
• Editing the master can update repeated elements without modifying every slide individually.
• Presenter View and Rehearse Timings are slide-show delivery tools rather than centralized design controls.
వివరణ:
Question 19
ప్రశ్న 19
A PowerPoint file contains 70 slides, but a particular briefing should display only slides 2, 10, 15, 30 and 50 in that order without deleting the other slides. Which feature is designed for this requirement?
Explanation:
• A Custom Slide Show can define a selected subset and sequence of slides from a larger presentation.
• The original slides remain in the presentation and can still be used in other shows.
• This is useful when one presentation must support different audiences or briefing lengths.
• The original slides remain in the presentation and can still be used in other shows.
• This is useful when one presentation must support different audiences or briefing lengths.
వివరణ:
Question 20
ప్రశ్న 20
An Access database stores one Case record in a main form and must display all EvidenceItems related to the current CaseID below it. Which design is most appropriate?
Explanation:
• A main form/subform design is suitable for displaying a one-to-many relationship interactively.
• The main form can show one Case while the linked subform shows all EvidenceItems whose CaseID corresponds to the current case.
• This preserves proper relational structure instead of storing multiple child records in one field.
• The main form can show one Case while the linked subform shows all EvidenceItems whose CaseID corresponds to the current case.
• This preserves proper relational structure instead of storing multiple child records in one field.
వివరణ:
Question 21
ప్రశ్న 21
Host A has IPv4 address 192.168.10.70/26 and Host B has 192.168.10.120/26. Which statement is correct?
Explanation:
• A /26 prefix divides the final octet into blocks of 64 addresses: 0–63, 64–127, 128–191 and 192–255.
• Both 70 and 120 fall inside the 64–127 block.
• Their subnet is therefore 192.168.10.64/26, allowing local communication under normal valid LAN configuration.
• Both 70 and 120 fall inside the 64–127 block.
• Their subnet is therefore 192.168.10.64/26, allowing local communication under normal valid LAN configuration.
వివరణ:
Question 22
ప్రశ్న 22
Which statement correctly distinguishes the Internet from an organizational intranet?
Explanation:
• The Internet interconnects networks globally and is not limited to one organization.
• An intranet provides private organizational services to an authorized community.
• Intranets can use common Internet technologies and may have controlled Internet connectivity while remaining private.
• An intranet provides private organizational services to an authorized community.
• Intranets can use common Internet technologies and may have controlled Internet connectivity while remaining private.
వివరణ:
Question 23
ప్రశ్న 23
Consider the following statements about firewall technologies:
1. A basic packet filter can use source and destination addresses, protocol and port information in its rules.
2. A stateful firewall can maintain information about active connections.
3. An application-proxy gateway can act as an intermediary and apply application-aware controls.
4. Network Address Translation by itself is necessarily a complete firewall implementation.
Which statements are correct?
1. A basic packet filter can use source and destination addresses, protocol and port information in its rules.
2. A stateful firewall can maintain information about active connections.
3. An application-proxy gateway can act as an intermediary and apply application-aware controls.
4. Network Address Translation by itself is necessarily a complete firewall implementation.
Which statements are correct?
Explanation:
• Packet filtering can use header information such as addresses, protocols and ports to enforce rules.
• Stateful inspection adds connection tracking, while an application-proxy gateway can mediate application communications.
• NAT performs address translation and should not by itself be equated with a complete firewall security implementation.
• Stateful inspection adds connection tracking, while an application-proxy gateway can mediate application communications.
• NAT performs address translation and should not by itself be equated with a complete firewall security implementation.
వివరణ:
Question 24
ప్రశ్న 24
A user authenticates with a password and then inserts a cryptographic hardware token that is independently verified. Which statement is correct?
Explanation:
• A password is a knowledge factor: something the user knows.
• A hardware token represents a possession factor: something the user has.
• Independently verifying factors from different categories constitutes multi-factor authentication.
• A hardware token represents a possession factor: something the user has.
• Independently verifying factors from different categories constitutes multi-factor authentication.
వివరణ:
Question 25
ప్రశ్న 25
Match List I with List II:
List I
(a) Packet filter
(b) Application-proxy gateway
(c) VPN
(d) Encryption
List II
1. Creates a protected virtual communication path across an existing network
2. Applies access rules using packet information such as addresses, protocols and ports
3. Transforms plaintext into ciphertext to protect confidentiality
4. Acts as an application-aware intermediary between communicating endpoints
Choose the correct matching code.
List I
(a) Packet filter
(b) Application-proxy gateway
(c) VPN
(d) Encryption
List II
1. Creates a protected virtual communication path across an existing network
2. Applies access rules using packet information such as addresses, protocols and ports
3. Transforms plaintext into ciphertext to protect confidentiality
4. Acts as an application-aware intermediary between communicating endpoints
Choose the correct matching code.
Explanation:
• A packet filter applies header-based traffic rules, giving (a)-2.
• An application-proxy gateway acts as an application-aware intermediary, giving (b)-4.
• A VPN provides the protected virtual path, giving (c)-1, while encryption protects confidentiality through ciphertext transformation, giving (d)-3.
• An application-proxy gateway acts as an application-aware intermediary, giving (b)-4.
• A VPN provides the protected virtual path, giving (c)-1, while encryption protects confidentiality through ciphertext transformation, giving (d)-3.
వివరణ:
Answer Key సమాధానాల పట్టిక
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Question 1 ప్రశ్న 1Answer: C. Program Counter సమాధానం: C.
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Question 2 ప్రశ్న 2Answer: A. UEFI performs early hardware initialization and can select a configured boot entry before control is transferred to operating-system boot software. సమాధానం: A.
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Question 3 ప్రశ్న 3Answer: D. 6 TB usable; two drive failures సమాధానం: D.
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Question 4 ప్రశ్న 4Answer: B. An SMPS supplies regulated DC power to internal components, while a UPS can provide temporary backup power when the normal electrical supply fails. సమాధానం: B.
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Question 5 ప్రశ్న 5Answer: A. Fuser assembly సమాధానం: A.
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Question 6 ప్రశ్న 6Answer: C. Power down the PC, verify RAM compatibility and seating, and test one known-good module and slot at a time. సమాధానం: C.
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Question 7 ప్రశ్న 7Answer: D. Running to Waiting/Blocked సమాధానం: D.
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Question 8 ప్రశ్న 8Answer: B. The referenced virtual-memory page is not currently available in physical memory and requires operating-system handling. సమాధానం: B.
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Question 9 ప్రశ్న 9Answer: C. DIR /A:H సమాధానం: C.
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Question 10 ప్రశ్న 10Answer: A. It can revert selected system files, registry settings, drivers and configuration to a restore point without being intended as a backup of personal documents. సమాధానం: A.
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Question 11 ప్రశ్న 11Answer: B. Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. సమాధానం: B.
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Question 12 ప్రశ్న 12Answer: D. A minimal set of one or more attributes capable of uniquely identifying every row in the relation సమాధానం: D.
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Question 13 ప్రశ్న 13Answer: C. Place appropriate section breaks around the required page and apply landscape orientation to that section. సమాధానం: C.
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Question 14 ప్రశ్న 14Answer: D. Prepare the main document → connect or select recipients → insert merge fields → preview results → Finish & Merge సమాధానం: D.
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Question 15 ప్రశ్న 15Answer: A. =$B7+E$2, result 20 సమాధానం: A.
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Question 16 ప్రశ్న 16Answer: B. 500 సమాధానం: B.
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Question 17 ప్రశ్న 17Answer: A. Data Validation configured as a List సమాధానం: A.
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Question 18 ప్రశ్న 18Answer: C. Slide Master సమాధానం: C.
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Question 19 ప్రశ్న 19Answer: D. Custom Slide Show సమాధానం: D.
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Question 20 ప్రశ్న 20Answer: B. Use a subform based on EvidenceItems and link the main form and subform through CaseID. సమాధానం: B.
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Question 21 ప్రశ్న 21Answer: C. Both addresses belong to the 192.168.10.64/26 subnet and can communicate locally if the LAN configuration is otherwise correct. సమాధానం: C.
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Question 22 ప్రశ్న 22Answer: A. The Internet is a global system of interconnected networks, while an intranet is a private organizational network or information environment intended mainly for authorized users. సమాధానం: A.
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Question 23 ప్రశ్న 23Answer: D. 1, 2 and 3 only సమాధానం: D.
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Question 24 ప్రశ్న 24Answer: B. The login uses multiple factor categories: a knowledge factor and a possession factor. సమాధానం: B.
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Question 25 ప్రశ్న 25Answer: D. (a)-2, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-3 సమాధానం: D.
