Please keep at least one language enabled. || కనీసం ఒక భాషను ఎంచుకోండి.
Question 1
ప్రశ్న 1
Consider the following statements about PC startup and troubleshooting:
1. POST and firmware initialization occur before the operating system is loaded.
2. Firmware may detect a storage device correctly even when no valid boot entry or bootable operating system is available on it.
3. If an SSD is not detected by firmware, reinstalling Windows on that SSD should normally be the first troubleshooting step.
4. If boot failure begins immediately after a RAM upgrade, memory seating and compatibility should be checked before reinstalling the operating system.
Which statements are correct?
1. POST and firmware initialization occur before the operating system is loaded.
2. Firmware may detect a storage device correctly even when no valid boot entry or bootable operating system is available on it.
3. If an SSD is not detected by firmware, reinstalling Windows on that SSD should normally be the first troubleshooting step.
4. If boot failure begins immediately after a RAM upgrade, memory seating and compatibility should be checked before reinstalling the operating system.
Which statements are correct?
Explanation:
• POST and firmware initialization precede operating-system loading, and firmware detection of a drive does not guarantee that the drive contains a valid bootable system.
• If firmware cannot detect an SSD, hardware connections, compatibility and the storage device itself should be investigated before operating-system installation.
• A failure beginning immediately after a RAM upgrade should first be isolated at the changed hardware component, making statements 1, 2 and 4 correct.
• If firmware cannot detect an SSD, hardware connections, compatibility and the storage device itself should be investigated before operating-system installation.
• A failure beginning immediately after a RAM upgrade should first be isolated at the changed hardware component, making statements 1, 2 and 4 correct.
వివరణ:
Question 2
ప్రశ్న 2
Six identical 4 TB drives are available. Which comparison between conventional RAID 5 and RAID 6 is correct, ignoring formatting and metadata overhead?
Explanation:
• RAID 5 usable capacity is approximately (N−1) times the smallest drive capacity: (6−1)×4 TB = 20 TB.
• RAID 6 uses the equivalent capacity of two drives for dual parity: (6−2)×4 TB = 16 TB.
• RAID 5 normally tolerates one member-drive failure, whereas RAID 6 normally tolerates two.
• RAID 6 uses the equivalent capacity of two drives for dual parity: (6−2)×4 TB = 16 TB.
• RAID 5 normally tolerates one member-drive failure, whereas RAID 6 normally tolerates two.
వివరణ:
Question 3
ప్రశ్న 3
In Excel, A2 contains 75, B2 contains 65 and C2 contains 55. What value is returned by =IF(AND(A2>=60,B2>=60),AVERAGE(A2:C2),0)?
Explanation:
• A2>=60 and B2>=60 are both TRUE, so AND returns TRUE and the AVERAGE branch is evaluated.
• AVERAGE(A2:C2) = (75+65+55)÷3 = 195÷3 = 65.
• C2 does not have to satisfy the >=60 condition because the AND function in the displayed formula tests only A2 and B2.
• AVERAGE(A2:C2) = (75+65+55)÷3 = 195÷3 = 65.
• C2 does not have to satisfy the >=60 condition because the AND function in the displayed formula tests only A2 and B2.
వివరణ:
Question 4
ప్రశ్న 4
A folder is accessed across a Windows network share. The user's share permission is Full Control, but the NTFS permission on the folder grants that user only Read access. The user can open files but cannot modify them. Which explanation is most accurate?
Explanation:
• When an NTFS resource is accessed through a share, both the applicable share permissions and NTFS permissions affect access.
• Granting broad share access does not override a more restrictive NTFS permission on the underlying object.
• In this scenario the effective result permits reading but not modification.
• Granting broad share access does not override a more restrictive NTFS permission on the underlying object.
• In this scenario the effective result permits reading but not modification.
వివరణ:
Question 5
ప్రశ్న 5
Consider the following concurrency anomalies:
1. A dirty read occurs when a transaction reads data written by another transaction that has not yet committed.
2. A non-repeatable read can occur when the same row is read twice and a committed update by another transaction causes different values to be returned.
3. A phantom can occur when a repeated range query returns a different set of qualifying rows because another transaction inserted or deleted matching rows.
4. Serializable isolation is designed to permit all of these anomalies freely.
Which statements are correct?
1. A dirty read occurs when a transaction reads data written by another transaction that has not yet committed.
2. A non-repeatable read can occur when the same row is read twice and a committed update by another transaction causes different values to be returned.
3. A phantom can occur when a repeated range query returns a different set of qualifying rows because another transaction inserted or deleted matching rows.
4. Serializable isolation is designed to permit all of these anomalies freely.
Which statements are correct?
Explanation:
• Statements 1, 2 and 3 correctly describe dirty reads, non-repeatable reads and phantom phenomena respectively.
• Serializable isolation aims to make concurrent execution equivalent to some valid serial ordering.
• Statement 4 therefore contradicts the objective of serializable isolation.
• Serializable isolation aims to make concurrent execution equivalent to some valid serial ordering.
• Statement 4 therefore contradicts the objective of serializable isolation.
వివరణ:
Question 6
ప్రశ్న 6
A six-drive RAID 10 array contains three mirrored pairs: A1/A2, B1/B2 and C1/C2, with data striped across the mirror pairs. Which three-drive failure can the array tolerate while retaining one functioning member of every mirror pair?
Explanation:
• RAID 10 survives as long as every required mirrored pair retains at least one usable member.
• Failure of A1, B1 and C1 leaves A2, B2 and C2 available, so every mirror pair still has one copy.
• Each other option destroys both members of at least one mirror pair and therefore loses part of the striped data set.
• Failure of A1, B1 and C1 leaves A2, B2 and C2 available, so every mirror pair still has one copy.
• Each other option destroys both members of at least one mirror pair and therefore loses part of the striped data set.
వివరణ:
Question 7
ప్రశ్న 7
A database must represent a many-to-many relationship in which one Case may involve several Officers and one Officer may work on several Cases. Which relational design is most appropriate?
Explanation:
• A many-to-many relationship is normally resolved through an associative or junction table.
• CaseID and OfficerID in the junction table reference the corresponding parent tables and identify each Case–Officer association.
• A composite key or equivalent uniqueness constraint prevents accidental duplicate associations while preserving relational structure.
• CaseID and OfficerID in the junction table reference the corresponding parent tables and identify each Case–Officer association.
• A composite key or equivalent uniqueness constraint prevents accidental duplicate associations while preserving relational structure.
వివరణ:
Question 8
ప్రశ్న 8
Match the Windows administrative tools with their primary functions:
List I
(a) Device Manager
(b) Event Viewer
(c) Disk Management
(d) Task Scheduler
List II
1. Examines recorded system, application and security events
2. Manages disks, partitions and volumes
3. Manages hardware devices and associated drivers
4. Creates and manages tasks triggered by schedules or events
Choose the correct matching code.
List I
(a) Device Manager
(b) Event Viewer
(c) Disk Management
(d) Task Scheduler
List II
1. Examines recorded system, application and security events
2. Manages disks, partitions and volumes
3. Manages hardware devices and associated drivers
4. Creates and manages tasks triggered by schedules or events
Choose the correct matching code.
Explanation:
• Device Manager manages devices and drivers, giving (a)-3, while Event Viewer examines event logs, giving (b)-1.
• Disk Management manages disks and volumes, giving (c)-2.
• Task Scheduler creates and manages triggered or scheduled tasks, giving (d)-4.
• Disk Management manages disks and volumes, giving (c)-2.
• Task Scheduler creates and manages triggered or scheduled tasks, giving (d)-4.
వివరణ:
Question 9
ప్రశ్న 9
Cell F4 contains the Excel formula =$B4+C$2+D4. It is copied to H7. If B7=10, E2=5 and F7=7, which formula and resulting value are correct in H7?
Explanation:
• Moving from F4 to H7 shifts relative references two columns right and three rows down.
• $B4 becomes $B7, C$2 becomes E$2, and D4 becomes F7.
• The resulting formula is =$B7+E$2+F7, and 10+5+7 = 22.
• $B4 becomes $B7, C$2 becomes E$2, and D4 becomes F7.
• The resulting formula is =$B7+E$2+F7, and 10+5+7 = 22.
వివరణ:
Question 10
ప్రశ్న 10
Which statement correctly distinguishes authentication, authorization and encryption?
Explanation:
• Authentication concerns establishing confidence that an entity is the identity it claims to be.
• Authorization determines what an authenticated entity is permitted to access or perform.
• Encryption transforms data cryptographically to protect confidentiality from unauthorized disclosure.
• Authorization determines what an authenticated entity is permitted to access or perform.
• Encryption transforms data cryptographically to protect confidentiality from unauthorized disclosure.
వివరణ:
Question 11
ప్రశ్న 11
An organization's DNS record for an internal server has just been changed. Other workstations resolve the new address correctly, but one Windows workstation continues resolving the old address from its local resolver cache. Which command should be tried to clear that cached DNS information?
Explanation:
• ipconfig /flushdns clears the Windows DNS client resolver cache.
• This is appropriate when one workstation continues using stale locally cached name-resolution data while the DNS service itself has already been updated.
• CHKDSK, SFC and FORMAT perform storage or system-file operations rather than clearing DNS cache entries.
• This is appropriate when one workstation continues using stale locally cached name-resolution data while the DNS service itself has already been updated.
• CHKDSK, SFC and FORMAT perform storage or system-file operations rather than clearing DNS cache entries.
వివరణ:
Question 12
ప్రశ్న 12
A newly installed storage drive is detected by UEFI and Windows Device Manager but does not appear as a usable drive in File Explorer. Which Windows tool should be checked next to initialize the disk if necessary, create a volume and assign a drive letter?
Explanation:
• Disk Management displays physical disks and their partition or volume status even when they are not yet available through File Explorer.
• A new disk may require initialization, partitioning, formatting and assignment of a drive letter before ordinary file access is possible.
• Device detection alone does not guarantee that a usable filesystem volume has been created.
• A new disk may require initialization, partitioning, formatting and assignment of a drive letter before ordinary file access is possible.
• Device detection alone does not guarantee that a usable filesystem volume has been created.
వివరణ:
Question 13
ప్రశ్న 13
Consider the following database statements:
1. An index can accelerate suitable searches but adds storage and maintenance overhead.
2. An ordinary non-materialized view presents data derived from a query over underlying tables rather than storing an independent duplicate of all displayed rows.
3. Normalization can reduce redundancy and update anomalies.
4. A primary-key field may freely contain Null values in some rows while still functioning as the table's primary key.
Which statements are correct?
1. An index can accelerate suitable searches but adds storage and maintenance overhead.
2. An ordinary non-materialized view presents data derived from a query over underlying tables rather than storing an independent duplicate of all displayed rows.
3. Normalization can reduce redundancy and update anomalies.
4. A primary-key field may freely contain Null values in some rows while still functioning as the table's primary key.
Which statements are correct?
Explanation:
• Indexes can improve selected data-access operations but require storage and maintenance when indexed data changes.
• Views and normalization provide logical abstraction and improved database organization respectively.
• Primary-key values must identify rows and cannot be Null, so statement 4 is incorrect.
• Views and normalization provide logical abstraction and improved database organization respectively.
• Primary-key values must identify rows and cannot be Null, so statement 4 is incorrect.
వివరణ:
Question 14
ప్రశ్న 14
A remote employee connects successfully through an encrypted VPN, but the employee's laptop is already compromised by malware. Which security conclusion is most accurate?
Explanation:
• A VPN protects communication between defined VPN endpoints but does not automatically remediate malware already running on an endpoint.
• A compromised system may still misuse legitimate network access after the protected connection is established.
• Endpoint security, authorization and appropriate traffic controls therefore remain necessary parts of layered security.
• A compromised system may still misuse legitimate network access after the protected connection is established.
• Endpoint security, authorization and appropriate traffic controls therefore remain necessary parts of layered security.
వివరణ:
Question 15
ప్రశ్న 15
A RAID 5 array has already lost one member drive and is operating in degraded mode. Before the failed drive is replaced and the array is successfully rebuilt, another member drive fails. Which statement is correct for conventional RAID 5?
Explanation:
• Conventional RAID 5 provides protection against one member-drive failure at a time.
• While the array is degraded, the remaining data and parity are required to reconstruct the missing drive's contents.
• A second member-drive failure before successful rebuild exceeds RAID 5's normal redundancy capability.
• While the array is degraded, the remaining data and parity are required to reconstruct the missing drive's contents.
• A second member-drive failure before successful rebuild exceeds RAID 5's normal redundancy capability.
వివరణ:
Question 16
ప్రశ్న 16
In Excel, B2:B5 contain {2,4,3,5} and C2:C5 contain {10,6,8,4}. What value is returned by =SUMPRODUCT(B2:B5,C2:C5)?
Explanation:
• SUMPRODUCT multiplies corresponding entries and adds the products.
• The calculation is (2×10)+(4×6)+(3×8)+(5×4) = 20+24+24+20.
• The total is therefore 88.
• The calculation is (2×10)+(4×6)+(3×8)+(5×4) = 20+24+24+20.
• The total is therefore 88.
వివరణ:
Question 17
ప్రశ్న 17
A Windows service is configured for Automatic startup but repeatedly fails during boot. Which troubleshooting approach is most appropriate for identifying the service-specific cause?
Explanation:
• The Services console provides information about service state, startup configuration and service dependencies.
• Event Viewer can provide service-control and application/system error information associated with the failed startup.
• Combining service configuration with event-log evidence is more appropriate than unrelated or destructive troubleshooting.
• Event Viewer can provide service-control and application/system error information associated with the failed startup.
• Combining service configuration with event-log evidence is more appropriate than unrelated or destructive troubleshooting.
వివరణ:
Question 18
ప్రశ్న 18
Host A has IPv4 address 192.168.50.10/24 and Host B has 192.168.50.200/24. Assuming ordinary Ethernet LAN operation and valid configuration, which statement is correct when Host A sends an IP packet to Host B?
Explanation:
• A /24 prefix fixes the first 24 address bits as the network portion.
• Both addresses belong to the 192.168.50.0/24 network, so they are local-subnet peers under the stated configuration.
• Traffic between them can therefore be delivered through the local LAN rather than being sent to the default gateway for routing.
• Both addresses belong to the 192.168.50.0/24 network, so they are local-subnet peers under the stated configuration.
• Traffic between them can therefore be delivered through the local LAN rather than being sent to the default gateway for routing.
వివరణ:
Question 19
ప్రశ్న 19
Consider the following security statements:
1. A basic stateless packet filter can use source/destination addresses, protocols and port information when making decisions.
2. A stateful firewall can maintain information about active connections.
3. An application-proxy gateway can act as an intermediary and apply application-aware controls.
4. Network Address Translation by itself should always be treated as a complete firewall implementation.
Which statements are correct?
1. A basic stateless packet filter can use source/destination addresses, protocols and port information when making decisions.
2. A stateful firewall can maintain information about active connections.
3. An application-proxy gateway can act as an intermediary and apply application-aware controls.
4. Network Address Translation by itself should always be treated as a complete firewall implementation.
Which statements are correct?
Explanation:
• Stateless packet filters make policy decisions using packet information without maintaining equivalent connection state.
• Stateful firewalls add connection tracking, while application-proxy gateways can mediate application communications at a higher level.
• Address translation alone is not equivalent to implementing a complete firewall security policy, making statement 4 incorrect.
• Stateful firewalls add connection tracking, while application-proxy gateways can mediate application communications at a higher level.
• Address translation alone is not equivalent to implementing a complete firewall security policy, making statement 4 incorrect.
వివరణ:
Question 20
ప్రశ్న 20
Transaction T1 holds an exclusive lock on record A and requests record B. Transaction T2 holds an exclusive lock on record B and requests record A. Neither can continue. Which database condition is illustrated?
Explanation:
• T1 waits for a resource held by T2 while T2 simultaneously waits for a resource held by T1.
• This circular wait prevents both transactions from progressing without DBMS intervention.
• The condition is a deadlock, commonly resolved by choosing and aborting one participating transaction.
• This circular wait prevents both transactions from progressing without DBMS intervention.
• The condition is a deadlock, commonly resolved by choosing and aborting one participating transaction.
వివరణ:
Question 21
ప్రశ్న 21
In Excel, A2:A6 contain {East,West,East,North,East} and B2:B6 contain {40,60,80,100,20}. What value is returned by =ROUND(AVERAGEIF(A2:A6,"East",B2:B6),2)?
Explanation:
• The rows whose criterion is East contain the values 40, 80 and 20.
• Their average is (40+80+20)÷3 = 140÷3 = 46.6666....
• ROUND(...,2) rounds this result to two decimal places, producing 46.67.
• Their average is (40+80+20)÷3 = 140÷3 = 46.6666....
• ROUND(...,2) rounds this result to two decimal places, producing 46.67.
వివరణ:
Question 22
ప్రశ్న 22
A police unit must maintain normalized case records with relationships, perform statistical calculations on exported figures, prepare a long formal textual report and present the findings as slides. Which allocation of Microsoft Office applications is most appropriate?
Explanation:
• Access is suited to structured relational records, keys, relationships, queries and forms.
• Excel is optimized for spreadsheet calculation and analysis, while Word is suited to long-form formal documents.
• PowerPoint provides slide-based presentation tools, so the first allocation matches each application's primary strengths.
• Excel is optimized for spreadsheet calculation and analysis, while Word is suited to long-form formal documents.
• PowerPoint provides slide-based presentation tools, so the first allocation matches each application's primary strengths.
వివరణ:
Question 23
ప్రశ్న 23
A system disk has been cloned successfully to a new SSD. UEFI detects both drives, but when both are connected the computer continues booting from the old disk. What is the most appropriate next troubleshooting step?
Explanation:
• Detection of both drives shows that firmware can see the storage hardware.
• If the old installation is still starting, the selected firmware boot entry or boot priority may still point to the old system disk.
• The intended new boot entry should be selected and tested before destructive changes are made to either drive.
• If the old installation is still starting, the selected firmware boot entry or boot priority may still point to the old system disk.
• The intended new boot entry should be selected and tested before destructive changes are made to either drive.
వివరణ:
Question 24
ప్రశ్న 24
Match the Microsoft Office features with their primary uses:
List I
(a) Word Section Break
(b) Excel Data Validation
(c) PowerPoint Custom Slide Show
(d) Access Crosstab Query
List II
1. Produces an aggregate matrix using row and column headings
2. Separates parts of a document so section-specific formatting can be applied
3. Restricts or controls permitted worksheet-cell entries
4. Presents a selected subset of slides in a specified sequence
Choose the correct matching code.
List I
(a) Word Section Break
(b) Excel Data Validation
(c) PowerPoint Custom Slide Show
(d) Access Crosstab Query
List II
1. Produces an aggregate matrix using row and column headings
2. Separates parts of a document so section-specific formatting can be applied
3. Restricts or controls permitted worksheet-cell entries
4. Presents a selected subset of slides in a specified sequence
Choose the correct matching code.
Explanation:
• A Word Section Break separates document sections for section-specific formatting, giving (a)-2.
• Excel Data Validation controls permitted cell input, giving (b)-3, and a Custom Slide Show defines a selected slide sequence, giving (c)-4.
• An Access Crosstab Query summarizes values using row and column headings, giving (d)-1.
• Excel Data Validation controls permitted cell input, giving (b)-3, and a Custom Slide Show defines a selected slide sequence, giving (c)-4.
• An Access Crosstab Query summarizes values using row and column headings, giving (d)-1.
వివరణ:
Question 25
ప్రశ్న 25
Assertion (A): If the processor obtains a requested item through an L1 cache hit, it need not access DRAM for that particular request.
Reason (R): Cache memory stores copies of selected instructions or data closer to the CPU and normally provides lower access latency than main memory.
Choose the correct answer.
Reason (R): Cache memory stores copies of selected instructions or data closer to the CPU and normally provides lower access latency than main memory.
Choose the correct answer.
Explanation:
• An L1 cache hit means the requested information is already available in that cache level for the processor to use.
• Cache stores copies of selected memory contents at much lower access latency than ordinary DRAM.
• Both statements are true, and the Reason correctly explains why a cache hit can avoid a DRAM access for that request.
• Cache stores copies of selected memory contents at much lower access latency than ordinary DRAM.
• Both statements are true, and the Reason correctly explains why a cache hit can avoid a DRAM access for that request.
వివరణ:
Answer Key సమాధానాల పట్టిక
-
Question 1 ప్రశ్న 1Answer: D. 1, 2 and 4 only సమాధానం: D.
-
Question 2 ప్రశ్న 2Answer: B. RAID 5 provides about 20 TB usable and normally tolerates one drive failure; RAID 6 provides about 16 TB usable and normally tolerates two. సమాధానం: B.
-
Question 3 ప్రశ్న 3Answer: C. 65 సమాధానం: C.
-
Question 4 ప్రశ్న 4Answer: A. Network access is constrained by both share and NTFS permissions, so the more restrictive effective result prevents modification. సమాధానం: A.
-
Question 5 ప్రశ్న 5Answer: C. 1, 2 and 3 only సమాధానం: C.
-
Question 6 ప్రశ్న 6Answer: D. A1, B1 and C1 fail సమాధానం: D.
-
Question 7 ప్రశ్న 7Answer: A. Create a CaseOfficer junction table containing CaseID and OfficerID as foreign keys, with the pair forming a suitable composite key or otherwise being constrained to be unique. సమాధానం: A.
-
Question 8 ప్రశ్న 8Answer: B. (a)-3, (b)-1, (c)-2, (d)-4 సమాధానం: B.
-
Question 9 ప్రశ్న 9Answer: C. =$B7+E$2+F7, result 22 సమాధానం: C.
-
Question 10 ప్రశ్న 10Answer: A. Authentication establishes confidence in identity, authorization determines permitted actions or resources, and encryption primarily protects data confidentiality. సమాధానం: A.
-
Question 11 ప్రశ్న 11Answer: D. ipconfig /flushdns సమాధానం: D.
-
Question 12 ప్రశ్న 12Answer: B. Disk Management సమాధానం: B.
-
Question 13 ప్రశ్న 13Answer: C. 1, 2 and 3 only సమాధానం: C.
-
Question 14 ప్రశ్న 14Answer: D. The VPN can protect the communication path, but endpoint protection, authorization and firewall controls are still required because encryption does not disinfect the compromised laptop. సమాధానం: D.
-
Question 15 ప్రశ్న 15Answer: A. The second member-drive failure exceeds RAID 5's normal one-drive fault tolerance and can make the array unavailable with data loss. సమాధానం: A.
-
Question 16 ప్రశ్న 16Answer: B. 88 సమాధానం: B.
-
Question 17 ప్రశ్న 17Answer: C. Check the service status and dependencies in Services and examine relevant Event Viewer entries for startup errors. సమాధానం: C.
-
Question 18 ప్రశ్న 18Answer: A. Both addresses are in the same /24 subnet, so Host A can send the packet through the local LAN without routing it through the default gateway. సమాధానం: A.
-
Question 19 ప్రశ్న 19Answer: D. 1, 2 and 3 only సమాధానం: D.
-
Question 20 ప్రశ్న 20Answer: B. Deadlock సమాధానం: B.
-
Question 21 ప్రశ్న 21Answer: C. 46.67 సమాధానం: C.
-
Question 22 ప్రశ్న 22Answer: A. Access for relational case records; Excel for calculations; Word for the formal report; PowerPoint for the presentation సమాధానం: A.
-
Question 23 ప్రశ్న 23Answer: D. Review the UEFI boot priority or boot-manager entries, select the intended boot entry for the new SSD, and verify that the cloned system boots correctly. సమాధానం: D.
-
Question 24 ప్రశ్న 24Answer: B. (a)-2, (b)-3, (c)-4, (d)-1 సమాధానం: B.
-
Question 25 ప్రశ్న 25Answer: C. Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. సమాధానం: C.
