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Question 1
ప్రశ్న 1
A network adapter has received a frame and needs CPU attention. Instead of requiring the CPU to repeatedly check the adapter's status, the adapter signals the processor when service is required. Which I/O technique is being used?
Explanation:
• In interrupt-driven I/O, a device or its controller can notify the processor when it requires service.
• The CPU does not have to remain in a continuous polling loop waiting for the device.
• After receiving the interrupt, the processor executes the appropriate interrupt-handling routine and then resumes other work.
• The CPU does not have to remain in a continuous polling loop waiting for the device.
• After receiving the interrupt, the processor executes the appropriate interrupt-handling routine and then resumes other work.
వివరణ:
Question 2
ప్రశ్న 2
A fast input device produces data in short bursts, while the receiving process consumes that data at a different rate. Which mechanism temporarily holds data to help accommodate this short-term speed mismatch?
Explanation:
• A buffer is a temporary storage area used while data is being transferred between components or processes operating at different rates.
• Buffering helps smooth short-term differences between data production and consumption speeds.
• It is distinct from scheduling, paging and boot loading.
• Buffering helps smooth short-term differences between data production and consumption speeds.
• It is distinct from scheduling, paging and boot loading.
వివరణ:
Question 3
ప్రశ్న 3
When several applications send documents to a shared printer, the operating system stores the print jobs in a queue so that the applications do not have to wait for the printer to finish each job immediately. Which technique is this?
Explanation:
• Spooling places jobs such as print requests into an intermediate queue for later processing by the peripheral.
• This allows applications to continue working while the slower printer processes queued jobs sequentially.
• The term is commonly associated with printer-management services in operating systems.
• This allows applications to continue working while the slower printer processes queued jobs sequentially.
• The term is commonly associated with printer-management services in operating systems.
వివరణ:
Question 4
ప్రశ్న 4
What is the primary role of a device driver in an operating system?
Explanation:
• A device driver provides software support that enables the operating system to interact with specific hardware or a hardware class.
• It translates operating-system requests into operations understood by the device or its controller.
• A suitable driver is therefore important for correct operation of many peripherals.
• It translates operating-system requests into operations understood by the device or its controller.
• A suitable driver is therefore important for correct operation of many peripherals.
వివరణ:
Question 5
ప్రశ్న 5
Assertion (A): In a preemptive multitasking operating system, the currently running process can lose the CPU even though it has not voluntarily completed or blocked.
Reason (R): The operating system scheduler can preempt a running process, for example when its time slice expires, and schedule another ready process.
Choose the correct answer.
Reason (R): The operating system scheduler can preempt a running process, for example when its time slice expires, and schedule another ready process.
Choose the correct answer.
Explanation:
• Preemptive scheduling permits the operating system to interrupt a running process and allocate the CPU to another process.
• Expiration of a scheduling time slice is a common reason for such preemption.
• Both statements are true, and the Reason directly explains the Assertion.
• Expiration of a scheduling time slice is a common reason for such preemption.
• Both statements are true, and the Reason directly explains the Assertion.
వివరణ:
Question 6
ప్రశ్న 6
At a DOS/Windows command prompt, which command creates a new subdirectory named EVIDENCE in the current directory?
Explanation:
• MD stands for Make Directory and is equivalent to MKDIR.
• MD EVIDENCE creates a directory named EVIDENCE at the specified or current location.
• CD changes the current directory, RD removes a directory and DIR displays directory contents.
• MD EVIDENCE creates a directory named EVIDENCE at the specified or current location.
• CD changes the current directory, RD removes a directory and DIR displays directory contents.
వివరణ:
Question 7
ప్రశ్న 7
The current DOS/command-prompt directory is C:CASES2026AUGUST. Which command changes the current directory to its immediate parent, C:CASES2026?
Explanation:
• Two dots represent the parent directory in DOS/Windows path notation.
• CD .. therefore moves from the current directory to its immediate parent.
• CD moves to the root directory of the current drive rather than just one level upward.
• CD .. therefore moves from the current directory to its immediate parent.
• CD moves to the root directory of the current drive rather than just one level upward.
వివరణ:
Question 8
ప్రశ్న 8
Which command sets the Read-only attribute on a file named REPORT.TXT?
Explanation:
• In the ATTRIB command, +R sets the Read-only attribute.
• -R clears the Read-only attribute, while +H sets the Hidden attribute.
• Therefore ATTRIB +R REPORT.TXT marks REPORT.TXT as read-only.
• -R clears the Read-only attribute, while +H sets the Hidden attribute.
• Therefore ATTRIB +R REPORT.TXT marks REPORT.TXT as read-only.
వివరణ:
Question 9
ప్రశ్న 9
Which Windows accessory is most suitable when a user needs to create or edit a simple plain-text file without document-layout features such as page margins, styles and mail merge?
Explanation:
• Notepad is a lightweight Windows text editor intended for plain-text content.
• It is suitable for tasks such as editing configuration text, notes and simple text files.
• PowerPoint is presentation software, while Disk Management and Event Viewer are administrative utilities.
• It is suitable for tasks such as editing configuration text, notes and simple text files.
• PowerPoint is presentation software, while Disk Management and Event Viewer are administrative utilities.
వివరణ:
Question 10
ప్రశ్న 10
A Windows administrator wants to examine recorded Application, System and Security events while troubleshooting repeated system failures. Which utility is most appropriate?
Explanation:
• Event Viewer provides access to Windows event logs generated by the operating system, applications and security components.
• These logs can contain errors, warnings, informational events and audit-related entries useful for troubleshooting.
• It is therefore more appropriate than ordinary Windows accessories for diagnosing recorded system events.
• These logs can contain errors, warnings, informational events and audit-related entries useful for troubleshooting.
• It is therefore more appropriate than ordinary Windows accessories for diagnosing recorded system events.
వివరణ:
Question 11
ప్రశ్న 11
An administrator wants a maintenance script to run automatically every day at 2:00 AM without requiring a user to launch it manually. Which Windows utility is specifically intended for this purpose?
Explanation:
• Task Scheduler can launch programs, scripts or other tasks according to configured triggers and conditions.
• Time-based triggers can be configured for daily, weekly or other scheduled execution.
• This permits maintenance operations to run automatically without manual initiation at each occurrence.
• Time-based triggers can be configured for daily, weekly or other scheduled execution.
• This permits maintenance operations to run automatically without manual initiation at each occurrence.
వివరణ:
Question 12
ప్రశ్న 12
A faulty driver was recently installed and Windows became unstable. A suitable restore point exists from before the driver installation. Which Windows recovery feature is intended to revert system files, drivers and settings to that earlier system state without normally deleting personal documents?
Explanation:
• System Restore uses restore points to return important system configuration, drivers and system files to an earlier state.
• Personal files are not normally removed by the restore process.
• Programs or drivers installed after the selected restore point can be affected.
• Personal files are not normally removed by the restore process.
• Programs or drivers installed after the selected restore point can be affected.
వివరణ:
Question 13
ప్రశ్న 13
Which Windows utility is specifically useful for examining detailed real-time CPU, memory, disk and network activity associated with running processes when diagnosing a performance problem?
Explanation:
• Resource Monitor provides detailed views of processor, memory, disk and network activity.
• It can associate resource consumption with particular processes, connections and files.
• This makes it useful for detailed performance troubleshooting beyond ordinary document or accessory tasks.
• It can associate resource consumption with particular processes, connections and files.
• This makes it useful for detailed performance troubleshooting beyond ordinary document or accessory tasks.
వివరణ:
Question 14
ప్రశ్న 14
A Word document contains the word "Confidential" in bold throughout hundreds of pages. The author wants every occurrence changed to "Restricted" and wants the replacement text to be italic instead of bold. Which Word capability is most appropriate?
Explanation:
• Word's Find and Replace facility can replace repeated text throughout a document.
• Advanced Find and Replace options can also search for or apply formatting as part of the operation.
• This is considerably more efficient than manually editing hundreds of occurrences.
• Advanced Find and Replace options can also search for or apply formatting as part of the operation.
• This is considerably more efficient than manually editing hundreds of occurrences.
వివరణ:
Question 15
ప్రశ్న 15
In Excel, B2 contains 72 and C2 contains 68. What value is returned by the formula =IF(AND(B2>=60,C2>=60),AVERAGE(B2:C2),0)?
Explanation:
• Both logical tests are TRUE because 72>=60 and 68>=60.
• The IF function therefore evaluates AVERAGE(B2:C2) rather than returning 0.
• (72 + 68) / 2 = 140 / 2 = 70.
• The IF function therefore evaluates AVERAGE(B2:C2) rather than returning 0.
• (72 + 68) / 2 = 140 / 2 = 70.
వివరణ:
Question 16
ప్రశ్న 16
Cell D4 contains the Excel formula =$B4+C$2. The formula is copied to F6. What formula will appear in F6?
Explanation:
• The formula moves two columns right and two rows down.
• $B4 keeps column B fixed while its relative row changes to 6, producing $B6.
• C$2 has a relative column and fixed row, so column C shifts to E while row 2 remains fixed, producing E$2.
• $B4 keeps column B fixed while its relative row changes to 6, producing $B6.
• C$2 has a relative column and fixed row, so column C shifts to E while row 2 remains fixed, producing E$2.
వివరణ:
Question 17
ప్రశ్న 17
A PowerPoint file contains 80 slides, but a presenter needs to show only selected slides in a specific sequence to one audience without deleting or duplicating the remaining slides. Which feature is designed for this purpose?
Explanation:
• A Custom Slide Show allows selected slides from one presentation to be presented as a defined subset or sequence.
• The original slides remain in the presentation and can be reused in other custom shows.
• This is useful when different audiences require different subsets of the same presentation.
• The original slides remain in the presentation and can be reused in other custom shows.
• This is useful when different audiences require different subsets of the same presentation.
వివరణ:
Question 18
ప్రశ్న 18
An Access query should ask the user to enter a District name each time the query runs and then return records for the value entered. Which query technique is most appropriate?
Explanation:
• A parameter query prompts the user to supply a criterion when the query executes.
• The entered value can then be used to filter the records returned by the query.
• This allows one saved query to be reused for different District values without redesigning the query each time.
• The entered value can then be used to filter the records returned by the query.
• This allows one saved query to be reused for different District values without redesigning the query each time.
వివరణ:
Question 19
ప్రశ్న 19
An Access query must summarize total case counts by District as row headings and by CaseType as column headings. Which query type is specifically designed to present aggregate values in this two-dimensional arrangement?
Explanation:
• A Crosstab query summarizes data by using one or more row headings and a column heading.
• An aggregate value, such as Count or Sum, is calculated at the intersections of those categories.
• This makes Crosstab suitable for matrix-style summaries such as District by CaseType.
• An aggregate value, such as Count or Sum, is calculated at the intersections of those categories.
• This makes Crosstab suitable for matrix-style summaries such as District by CaseType.
వివరణ:
Question 20
ప్రశ్న 20
Which statement best describes a basic stateless packet-filtering firewall?
Explanation:
• Basic packet filtering is also referred to as stateless inspection.
• Decisions can be based on header information such as source and destination addresses, protocol and transport-layer ports.
• Unlike stateful inspection, a stateless filter does not maintain connection-state information for individual communication flows.
• Decisions can be based on header information such as source and destination addresses, protocol and transport-layer ports.
• Unlike stateful inspection, a stateless filter does not maintain connection-state information for individual communication flows.
వివరణ:
Question 21
ప్రశ్న 21
A workstation is permitted to send ordinary UDP DNS queries only to the organization's resolver at 10.0.0.53. Which outbound packet-filter rule most precisely implements this requirement?
Explanation:
• The stem explicitly specifies UDP DNS queries to one authorized resolver.
• The appropriate rule therefore matches UDP, destination address 10.0.0.53 and destination port 53.
• Broader rules would permit unnecessary traffic, while ICMP is not the UDP DNS traffic described in the requirement.
• The appropriate rule therefore matches UDP, destination address 10.0.0.53 and destination port 53.
• Broader rules would permit unnecessary traffic, while ICMP is not the UDP DNS traffic described in the requirement.
వివరణ:
Question 22
ప్రశ్న 22
In antivirus terminology, what is a false negative?
Explanation:
• A false negative occurs when a genuinely malicious item is incorrectly treated as non-malicious or goes undetected.
• It is dangerous because the threat may continue executing while the user believes no threat was found.
• A false positive is the opposite type of classification error: a legitimate item is incorrectly flagged as malicious.
• It is dangerous because the threat may continue executing while the user believes no threat was found.
• A false positive is the opposite type of classification error: a legitimate item is incorrectly flagged as malicious.
వివరణ:
Question 23
ప్రశ్న 23
Why is regularly updating antivirus security intelligence or malware definitions an important security practice?
Explanation:
• Antivirus products use current threat intelligence, signatures and other detection information when identifying malicious software.
• Newly discovered malware may require updated detection information before it can be reliably recognized by signature-oriented mechanisms.
• Antivirus updates are one part of layered security and do not eliminate the need for patching or safe computing practices.
• Newly discovered malware may require updated detection information before it can be reliably recognized by signature-oriented mechanisms.
• Antivirus updates are one part of layered security and do not eliminate the need for patching or safe computing practices.
వివరణ:
Question 24
ప్రశ్న 24
Which statement correctly distinguishes an organizational intranet from the Internet?
Explanation:
• An intranet is intended primarily for private organizational use and normally restricts access to authorized users.
• It can use the same technologies as Internet services, including TCP/IP, HTTP, HTTPS and web browsers.
• Internet connectivity does not automatically make protected intranet resources public.
• It can use the same technologies as Internet services, including TCP/IP, HTTP, HTTPS and web browsers.
• Internet connectivity does not automatically make protected intranet resources public.
వివరణ:
Question 25
ప్రశ్న 25
Match List I with List II:
List I
(a) Packet filter
(b) Antivirus
(c) Intranet
(d) Firewall
List II
1. Private organizational network or information environment
2. Detects or helps prevent malicious software
3. Applies packet-level access-control rules using information such as addresses, protocol and ports
4. Controls network traffic between networks or hosts according to security policy
Choose the correct matching code.
List I
(a) Packet filter
(b) Antivirus
(c) Intranet
(d) Firewall
List II
1. Private organizational network or information environment
2. Detects or helps prevent malicious software
3. Applies packet-level access-control rules using information such as addresses, protocol and ports
4. Controls network traffic between networks or hosts according to security policy
Choose the correct matching code.
Explanation:
• Packet filtering corresponds to header-based packet access-control rules, giving (a)-3.
• Antivirus corresponds to malware detection and prevention, giving (b)-2, while Intranet corresponds to the private organizational environment, giving (c)-1.
• Firewall corresponds to policy-based network-traffic control, giving (d)-4.
• Antivirus corresponds to malware detection and prevention, giving (b)-2, while Intranet corresponds to the private organizational environment, giving (c)-1.
• Firewall corresponds to policy-based network-traffic control, giving (d)-4.
వివరణ:
Answer Key సమాధానాల పట్టిక
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Question 1 ప్రశ్న 1Answer: C. Interrupt-driven I/O సమాధానం: C.
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Question 2 ప్రశ్న 2Answer: D. Buffer సమాధానం: D.
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Question 3 ప్రశ్న 3Answer: A. Spooling సమాధానం: A.
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Question 4 ప్రశ్న 4Answer: B. To provide the software interface through which the operating system communicates with and controls a hardware device సమాధానం: B.
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Question 5 ప్రశ్న 5Answer: C. Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. సమాధానం: C.
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Question 6 ప్రశ్న 6Answer: A. MD EVIDENCE సమాధానం: A.
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Question 7 ప్రశ్న 7Answer: D. CD .. సమాధానం: D.
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Question 8 ప్రశ్న 8Answer: B. ATTRIB +R REPORT.TXT సమాధానం: B.
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Question 9 ప్రశ్న 9Answer: A. Notepad సమాధానం: A.
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Question 10 ప్రశ్న 10Answer: C. Event Viewer సమాధానం: C.
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Question 11 ప్రశ్న 11Answer: D. Task Scheduler సమాధానం: D.
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Question 12 ప్రశ్న 12Answer: C. System Restore సమాధానం: C.
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Question 13 ప్రశ్న 13Answer: B. Resource Monitor సమాధానం: B.
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Question 14 ప్రశ్న 14Answer: A. Find and Replace with text and formatting criteria సమాధానం: A.
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Question 15 ప్రశ్న 15Answer: D. 70 సమాధానం: D.
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Question 16 ప్రశ్న 16Answer: B. =$B6+E$2 సమాధానం: B.
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Question 17 ప్రశ్న 17Answer: C. Custom Slide Show సమాధానం: C.
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Question 18 ప్రశ్న 18Answer: D. Parameter query సమాధానం: D.
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Question 19 ప్రశ్న 19Answer: A. Crosstab query సమాధానం: A.
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Question 20 ప్రశ్న 20Answer: C. It evaluates packet-header information against rules without maintaining per-connection state for each communication flow. సమాధానం: C.
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Question 21 ప్రశ్న 21Answer: B. Permit UDP traffic to destination IP 10.0.0.53 with destination port 53. సమాధానం: B.
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Question 22 ప్రశ్న 22Answer: D. Malware that is present but is not detected by the security product సమాధానం: D.
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Question 23 ప్రశ్న 23Answer: A. Updates provide information and detection logic that help the product recognize newly identified or modified threats. సమాధానం: A.
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Question 24 ప్రశ్న 24Answer: C. An intranet is a private organizational network or information environment for authorized users, while the Internet is a global network of interconnected networks. సమాధానం: C.
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Question 25 ప్రశ్న 25Answer: B. (a)-3, (b)-2, (c)-1, (d)-4 సమాధానం: B.
