Please keep at least one language enabled. || కనీసం ఒక భాషను ఎంచుకోండి.
Question 1
ప్రశ్న 1
Consider the following statements about RAM and ROM:
1. RAM normally provides volatile working storage for programs and data currently in use.
2. ROM or equivalent non-volatile firmware storage can retain information when power is removed.
3. RAM is used only for permanently storing boot firmware.
4. ROM is normally faster than CPU registers.
Which statements are correct?
1. RAM normally provides volatile working storage for programs and data currently in use.
2. ROM or equivalent non-volatile firmware storage can retain information when power is removed.
3. RAM is used only for permanently storing boot firmware.
4. ROM is normally faster than CPU registers.
Which statements are correct?
Explanation:
• Statements 1 and 2 correctly distinguish volatile working memory from non-volatile firmware storage.
• Statement 3 is false because RAM is used extensively as temporary working memory rather than only for firmware.
• Statement 4 is false because CPU registers are at the fastest end of the normal processor-memory hierarchy.
• Statement 3 is false because RAM is used extensively as temporary working memory rather than only for firmware.
• Statement 4 is false because CPU registers are at the fastest end of the normal processor-memory hierarchy.
వివరణ:
Question 2
ప్రశ్న 2
Consider the following statements about SRAM and DRAM:
1. SRAM does not require periodic refresh while power is maintained.
2. DRAM generally provides greater density and lower cost per bit than SRAM.
3. SRAM is commonly used in processor cache memory.
4. DRAM is inherently non-volatile and retains data indefinitely without power.
Which statements are correct?
1. SRAM does not require periodic refresh while power is maintained.
2. DRAM generally provides greater density and lower cost per bit than SRAM.
3. SRAM is commonly used in processor cache memory.
4. DRAM is inherently non-volatile and retains data indefinitely without power.
Which statements are correct?
Explanation:
• SRAM is fast and does not require the periodic refresh operation required by DRAM.
• DRAM's greater density and lower cost make it suitable for large-capacity main memory, while SRAM is commonly used for cache.
• Statement 4 is false because ordinary DRAM is volatile.
• DRAM's greater density and lower cost make it suitable for large-capacity main memory, while SRAM is commonly used for cache.
• Statement 4 is false because ordinary DRAM is volatile.
వివరణ:
Question 3
ప్రశ్న 3
Consider the following statements about cache memory:
1. L1 cache is generally smaller and faster than L3 cache.
2. Cache can reduce average memory-access time by retaining copies of frequently or recently used instructions and data.
3. Cache completely replaces the need for RAM and secondary storage.
4. Processor caches are commonly implemented using SRAM technology.
Which statements are correct?
1. L1 cache is generally smaller and faster than L3 cache.
2. Cache can reduce average memory-access time by retaining copies of frequently or recently used instructions and data.
3. Cache completely replaces the need for RAM and secondary storage.
4. Processor caches are commonly implemented using SRAM technology.
Which statements are correct?
Explanation:
• Statements 1, 2 and 4 correctly describe the normal cache hierarchy and implementation.
• Cache exploits locality to reduce the average time needed to obtain frequently used information.
• Statement 3 is false because cache complements rather than replaces main memory and secondary storage.
• Cache exploits locality to reduce the average time needed to obtain frequently used information.
• Statement 3 is false because cache complements rather than replaces main memory and secondary storage.
వివరణ:
Question 4
ప్రశ్న 4
Consider the following statements about storage technologies:
1. A traditional HDD uses rotating magnetic platters and movable read/write heads.
2. A typical SSD uses non-volatile semiconductor storage and has no spinning platter.
3. Optical discs such as CDs and DVDs are read using laser-based technology.
4. A USB flash drive must be periodically refreshed in the same way as DRAM to retain its files.
Which statements are correct?
1. A traditional HDD uses rotating magnetic platters and movable read/write heads.
2. A typical SSD uses non-volatile semiconductor storage and has no spinning platter.
3. Optical discs such as CDs and DVDs are read using laser-based technology.
4. A USB flash drive must be periodically refreshed in the same way as DRAM to retain its files.
Which statements are correct?
Explanation:
• HDDs use mechanical magnetic storage, while SSDs and USB flash drives use non-volatile semiconductor storage.
• Optical media are read using optical or laser technology.
• Statement 4 is false because flash memory is non-volatile and does not require DRAM-style periodic refresh to retain stored files.
• Optical media are read using optical or laser technology.
• Statement 4 is false because flash memory is non-volatile and does not require DRAM-style periodic refresh to retain stored files.
వివరణ:
Question 5
ప్రశ్న 5
Consider the following statements about conventional RAID levels:
1. RAID 0 uses striping and provides no RAID-level redundancy.
2. RAID 1 uses mirroring.
3. RAID 5 uses distributed parity and can normally tolerate one member-drive failure.
4. RAID 6 uses dual parity and can normally tolerate two member-drive failures.
Which statements are correct?
1. RAID 0 uses striping and provides no RAID-level redundancy.
2. RAID 1 uses mirroring.
3. RAID 5 uses distributed parity and can normally tolerate one member-drive failure.
4. RAID 6 uses dual parity and can normally tolerate two member-drive failures.
Which statements are correct?
Explanation:
• RAID 0 provides striping without redundancy, whereas RAID 1 provides redundancy by mirroring data.
• RAID 5 distributes parity information and normally tolerates a single drive failure.
• RAID 6 adds another parity capability and can normally tolerate two simultaneous member-drive failures.
• RAID 5 distributes parity information and normally tolerates a single drive failure.
• RAID 6 adds another parity capability and can normally tolerate two simultaneous member-drive failures.
వివరణ:
Question 6
ప్రశ్న 6
Consider the following statements about BIOS/UEFI and booting:
1. POST performs hardware initialization and checks during the early startup process.
2. UEFI is a modern firmware interface used on contemporary PCs.
3. Secure Boot can verify trust information associated with boot software before allowing trusted components to execute.
4. POST begins only after the user successfully signs in to Windows.
Which statements are correct?
1. POST performs hardware initialization and checks during the early startup process.
2. UEFI is a modern firmware interface used on contemporary PCs.
3. Secure Boot can verify trust information associated with boot software before allowing trusted components to execute.
4. POST begins only after the user successfully signs in to Windows.
Which statements are correct?
Explanation:
• POST and firmware initialization occur before the operating system is loaded.
• UEFI provides the modern firmware environment used for boot management and related system functions.
• Statement 4 is false because POST occurs well before the Windows sign-in stage.
• UEFI provides the modern firmware environment used for boot management and related system functions.
• Statement 4 is false because POST occurs well before the Windows sign-in stage.
వివరణ:
Question 7
ప్రశ్న 7
Match List I with List II:
List I
(a) Scanner
(b) OMR
(c) MICR
(d) Plotter
List II
1. Reads specially printed magnetic-ink characters
2. Produces large engineering or technical drawings
3. Captures paper documents as digital images
4. Detects marked response positions on structured forms
Choose the correct matching code.
List I
(a) Scanner
(b) OMR
(c) MICR
(d) Plotter
List II
1. Reads specially printed magnetic-ink characters
2. Produces large engineering or technical drawings
3. Captures paper documents as digital images
4. Detects marked response positions on structured forms
Choose the correct matching code.
Explanation:
• A scanner captures a paper document as digital image data, giving (a)-3.
• OMR detects marked positions, giving (b)-4, while MICR reads magnetic-ink characters, giving (c)-1.
• A plotter is associated with large-format drawings and graphics, giving (d)-2.
• OMR detects marked positions, giving (b)-4, while MICR reads magnetic-ink characters, giving (c)-1.
• A plotter is associated with large-format drawings and graphics, giving (d)-2.
వివరణ:
Question 8
ప్రశ్న 8
Consider the following statements about operating-system functions:
1. The scheduler helps allocate processor time among ready processes or threads.
2. Virtual memory allows a process address space to be supported using RAM together with backing storage when necessary.
3. Device drivers enable the operating system to communicate with hardware devices.
4. An operating system has no role in managing files or directories.
Which statements are correct?
1. The scheduler helps allocate processor time among ready processes or threads.
2. Virtual memory allows a process address space to be supported using RAM together with backing storage when necessary.
3. Device drivers enable the operating system to communicate with hardware devices.
4. An operating system has no role in managing files or directories.
Which statements are correct?
Explanation:
• Scheduling, memory management and device management are fundamental operating-system responsibilities.
• Operating systems also provide file-system and directory-management services.
• Therefore statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct, while statement 4 is incorrect.
• Operating systems also provide file-system and directory-management services.
• Therefore statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct, while statement 4 is incorrect.
వివరణ:
Question 9
ప్రశ్న 9
Match the DOS/Windows command-line commands with their primary functions:
List I
(a) DIR
(b) CD
(c) COPY
(d) REN
List II
1. Change the current directory
2. Rename a file or directory
3. Display directory contents
4. Copy one or more files
Choose the correct matching code.
List I
(a) DIR
(b) CD
(c) COPY
(d) REN
List II
1. Change the current directory
2. Rename a file or directory
3. Display directory contents
4. Copy one or more files
Choose the correct matching code.
Explanation:
• DIR displays files and directories, giving (a)-3, while CD changes the current directory, giving (b)-1.
• COPY duplicates files to another name or location, giving (c)-4.
• REN changes a file or directory name, giving (d)-2.
• COPY duplicates files to another name or location, giving (c)-4.
• REN changes a file or directory name, giving (d)-2.
వివరణ:
Question 10
ప్రశ్న 10
Consider the following Windows administrative-tool pairs:
1. Device Manager — manages hardware devices and associated drivers.
2. Event Viewer — examines recorded system, application and security events.
3. Task Scheduler — configures tasks to run according to triggers or schedules.
4. Disk Management — manages disks, partitions and volumes.
Which pairs are correctly matched?
1. Device Manager — manages hardware devices and associated drivers.
2. Event Viewer — examines recorded system, application and security events.
3. Task Scheduler — configures tasks to run according to triggers or schedules.
4. Disk Management — manages disks, partitions and volumes.
Which pairs are correctly matched?
Explanation:
• Device Manager, Event Viewer and Task Scheduler perform the functions stated in pairs 1 through 3.
• Disk Management provides graphical administration of disks and volumes, so pair 4 is also correct.
• Therefore all four pairs are correctly matched.
• Disk Management provides graphical administration of disks and volumes, so pair 4 is also correct.
• Therefore all four pairs are correctly matched.
వివరణ:
Question 11
ప్రశ్న 11
Consider the following statements about Windows accounts and administration:
1. A standard user normally has fewer system-wide privileges than an administrator account.
2. User Account Control can require consent or administrator credentials for operations needing elevation.
3. Windows services can operate in the background without an interactive user interface.
4. System Restore is primarily designed to erase all personal documents from the computer.
Which statements are correct?
1. A standard user normally has fewer system-wide privileges than an administrator account.
2. User Account Control can require consent or administrator credentials for operations needing elevation.
3. Windows services can operate in the background without an interactive user interface.
4. System Restore is primarily designed to erase all personal documents from the computer.
Which statements are correct?
Explanation:
• Standard accounts and UAC support the principle of limiting unnecessary administrative privilege.
• Windows services can run in the background to provide operating-system or application functionality.
• Statement 4 is false because System Restore targets system configuration and related components rather than being a personal-document deletion mechanism.
• Windows services can run in the background to provide operating-system or application functionality.
• Statement 4 is false because System Restore targets system configuration and related components rather than being a personal-document deletion mechanism.
వివరణ:
Question 12
ప్రశ్న 12
Consider the following software-classification statements:
1. An operating system is system software.
2. Microsoft Word is application software.
3. A hardware device driver is system software.
4. A compiler used to translate source code must always be classified as ordinary end-user office application software.
Which statements are correct?
1. An operating system is system software.
2. Microsoft Word is application software.
3. A hardware device driver is system software.
4. A compiler used to translate source code must always be classified as ordinary end-user office application software.
Which statements are correct?
Explanation:
• Operating systems and device drivers are system software because they support operation and control of the computer system.
• Word is application software designed for user-oriented document-processing tasks.
• Statement 4 is incorrect because compilers are programming or language-processing tools rather than ordinary office applications.
• Word is application software designed for user-oriented document-processing tasks.
• Statement 4 is incorrect because compilers are programming or language-processing tools rather than ordinary office applications.
వివరణ:
Question 13
ప్రశ్న 13
Consider the following statements about DBMS and RDBMS concepts:
1. An RDBMS is a DBMS based on the relational model.
2. A primary key uniquely identifies rows and cannot contain a Null value.
3. A foreign key can reference a key in another related table.
4. Every possible DBMS must necessarily use relational tables.
Which statements are correct?
1. An RDBMS is a DBMS based on the relational model.
2. A primary key uniquely identifies rows and cannot contain a Null value.
3. A foreign key can reference a key in another related table.
4. Every possible DBMS must necessarily use relational tables.
Which statements are correct?
Explanation:
• An RDBMS implements the relational model and commonly represents data through related tables.
• Primary and foreign keys support identification of rows and representation of relationships.
• Statement 4 is false because DBMS is a broader category that also includes non-relational approaches.
• Primary and foreign keys support identification of rows and representation of relationships.
• Statement 4 is false because DBMS is a broader category that also includes non-relational approaches.
వివరణ:
Question 14
ప్రశ్న 14
Consider the following normalization statements:
1. First Normal Form requires attributes to contain atomic values rather than repeating groups in a single field.
2. Second Normal Form removes partial dependency of non-key attributes on part of a composite candidate key.
3. Third Normal Form addresses transitive dependency of non-key attributes through other non-key attributes.
4. The primary objective of normalization is to deliberately increase unnecessary data redundancy.
Which statements are correct?
1. First Normal Form requires attributes to contain atomic values rather than repeating groups in a single field.
2. Second Normal Form removes partial dependency of non-key attributes on part of a composite candidate key.
3. Third Normal Form addresses transitive dependency of non-key attributes through other non-key attributes.
4. The primary objective of normalization is to deliberately increase unnecessary data redundancy.
Which statements are correct?
Explanation:
• Statements 1 through 3 describe progressively stronger normalization requirements at an exam-relevant level.
• Normalization aims to reduce undesirable redundancy and associated insertion, deletion and update anomalies.
• Statement 4 therefore reverses the actual objective and is incorrect.
• Normalization aims to reduce undesirable redundancy and associated insertion, deletion and update anomalies.
• Statement 4 therefore reverses the actual objective and is incorrect.
వివరణ:
Question 15
ప్రశ్న 15
Consider the following statements about Microsoft Word:
1. Section breaks can permit different page orientations, headers or page-numbering schemes in different parts of one document.
2. Styles can apply consistent formatting to repeated structural elements such as headings.
3. An automatic Table of Contents can be generated from appropriately structured heading styles.
4. A simple page break by itself always creates a new independent section with separate headers and footers.
Which statements are correct?
1. Section breaks can permit different page orientations, headers or page-numbering schemes in different parts of one document.
2. Styles can apply consistent formatting to repeated structural elements such as headings.
3. An automatic Table of Contents can be generated from appropriately structured heading styles.
4. A simple page break by itself always creates a new independent section with separate headers and footers.
Which statements are correct?
Explanation:
• Section breaks divide a document into independently formattable sections and can support different headers, orientation and numbering.
• Styles and automatic Tables of Contents are designed to support structured and consistent long documents.
• A normal page break starts a new page but does not by itself create a new section.
• Styles and automatic Tables of Contents are designed to support structured and consistent long documents.
• A normal page break starts a new page but does not by itself create a new section.
వివరణ:
Question 16
ప్రశ్న 16
Match the Microsoft Word features with their primary purposes:
List I
(a) Track Changes
(b) Mail Merge
(c) Format Painter
(d) Find and Replace
List II
1. Copies formatting from one location to another
2. Records document revisions for later review
3. Replaces repeated text or formatting according to search criteria
4. Produces personalized documents from a main document and a data source
Choose the correct matching code.
List I
(a) Track Changes
(b) Mail Merge
(c) Format Painter
(d) Find and Replace
List II
1. Copies formatting from one location to another
2. Records document revisions for later review
3. Replaces repeated text or formatting according to search criteria
4. Produces personalized documents from a main document and a data source
Choose the correct matching code.
Explanation:
• Track Changes records revisions, giving (a)-2, while Mail Merge generates personalized output from a data source, giving (b)-4.
• Format Painter copies formatting, giving (c)-1.
• Find and Replace searches for and replaces matching text or formatting, giving (d)-3.
• Format Painter copies formatting, giving (c)-1.
• Find and Replace searches for and replaces matching text or formatting, giving (d)-3.
వివరణ:
Question 17
ప్రశ్న 17
Consider the following Excel cell-reference statements:
1. $A$1 is an absolute reference to both column A and row 1.
2. A$1 has a relative column and an absolute row.
3. $A1 has an absolute column and a relative row.
4. A1 is an absolute reference that never changes when copied.
Which statements are correct?
1. $A$1 is an absolute reference to both column A and row 1.
2. A$1 has a relative column and an absolute row.
3. $A1 has an absolute column and a relative row.
4. A1 is an absolute reference that never changes when copied.
Which statements are correct?
Explanation:
• $A$1 fixes both the column and row, while A$1 and $A1 are mixed references.
• A normal A1 reference is relative and can change when a formula is copied or filled.
• Therefore statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct and statement 4 is false.
• A normal A1 reference is relative and can change when a formula is copied or filled.
• Therefore statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct and statement 4 is false.
వివరణ:
Question 18
ప్రశ్న 18
In Excel, cells A1:A4 contain 10, 20, 30 and 40 respectively. Consider the following statements:
1. =SUM(A1:A4) returns 100.
2. =AVERAGE(A1:A4) returns 25.
3. =COUNTIF(A1:A4,">20") returns 2.
4. =MAX(A1:A4) returns 30.
Which statements are correct?
1. =SUM(A1:A4) returns 100.
2. =AVERAGE(A1:A4) returns 25.
3. =COUNTIF(A1:A4,">20") returns 2.
4. =MAX(A1:A4) returns 30.
Which statements are correct?
Explanation:
• SUM gives 10+20+30+40 = 100, and AVERAGE gives 100/4 = 25.
• Values greater than 20 are 30 and 40, so COUNTIF returns 2.
• MAX returns 40 rather than 30, making statement 4 incorrect.
• Values greater than 20 are 30 and 40, so COUNTIF returns 2.
• MAX returns 40 rather than 30, making statement 4 incorrect.
వివరణ:
Question 19
ప్రశ్న 19
Consider the following statements about Microsoft PowerPoint:
1. A transition controls the visual change from one slide to another.
2. An animation effect can be applied to an object such as text, a picture or a shape.
3. Slide Master can control common presentation-wide design and layout elements.
4. Presenter View is intended to display the presenter's private notes to the audience as part of the projected slide.
Which statements are correct?
1. A transition controls the visual change from one slide to another.
2. An animation effect can be applied to an object such as text, a picture or a shape.
3. Slide Master can control common presentation-wide design and layout elements.
4. Presenter View is intended to display the presenter's private notes to the audience as part of the projected slide.
Which statements are correct?
Explanation:
• Transitions operate between slides, whereas animations affect objects on slides.
• Slide Master centralizes common presentation formatting and layout elements.
• Presenter View is specifically intended to keep presenter-oriented information such as notes separate from the audience's slide-show display.
• Slide Master centralizes common presentation formatting and layout elements.
• Presenter View is specifically intended to keep presenter-oriented information such as notes separate from the audience's slide-show display.
వివరణ:
Question 20
ప్రశ్న 20
Match the Microsoft Access objects with their primary purposes:
List I
(a) Table
(b) Query
(c) Form
(d) Report
List II
1. Retrieves, filters, calculates or manipulates data according to defined criteria
2. Provides a user-oriented interface for entering and viewing records
3. Stores structured records and fields
4. Presents data in a formatted, grouped or printable form
Choose the correct matching code.
List I
(a) Table
(b) Query
(c) Form
(d) Report
List II
1. Retrieves, filters, calculates or manipulates data according to defined criteria
2. Provides a user-oriented interface for entering and viewing records
3. Stores structured records and fields
4. Presents data in a formatted, grouped or printable form
Choose the correct matching code.
Explanation:
• Tables store records and fields, giving (a)-3, while queries retrieve or manipulate data, giving (b)-1.
• Forms provide user-friendly record interaction, giving (c)-2.
• Reports provide formatted output and summaries, giving (d)-4.
• Forms provide user-friendly record interaction, giving (c)-2.
• Reports provide formatted output and summaries, giving (d)-4.
వివరణ:
Question 21
ప్రశ్న 21
Consider the following statements about Microsoft Access:
1. Referential integrity can prevent a foreign-key value from referring to a nonexistent related record.
2. An Update query can modify values in multiple existing records that satisfy specified criteria.
3. A Crosstab query can summarize aggregate values using row and column headings.
4. A Report is the primary object that physically stores all underlying database records.
Which statements are correct?
1. Referential integrity can prevent a foreign-key value from referring to a nonexistent related record.
2. An Update query can modify values in multiple existing records that satisfy specified criteria.
3. A Crosstab query can summarize aggregate values using row and column headings.
4. A Report is the primary object that physically stores all underlying database records.
Which statements are correct?
Explanation:
• Referential integrity helps maintain valid relationships between related tables.
• Update queries modify qualifying records, while Crosstab queries provide matrix-style summaries.
• Reports display or present data; the underlying records are normally stored in tables.
• Update queries modify qualifying records, while Crosstab queries provide matrix-style summaries.
• Reports display or present data; the underlying records are normally stored in tables.
వివరణ:
Question 22
ప్రశ్న 22
Consider the following statements about network types and topologies:
1. A LAN usually covers a comparatively limited local area.
2. A MAN typically spans a metropolitan or city-scale area.
3. A WAN can interconnect networks across large geographical distances.
4. A star topology requires all devices to share one single linear backbone cable with no central device.
Which statements are correct?
1. A LAN usually covers a comparatively limited local area.
2. A MAN typically spans a metropolitan or city-scale area.
3. A WAN can interconnect networks across large geographical distances.
4. A star topology requires all devices to share one single linear backbone cable with no central device.
Which statements are correct?
Explanation:
• LAN, MAN and WAN are commonly distinguished by progressively broader geographical coverage.
• A star topology connects endpoints through a central device such as a switch or hub.
• Statement 4 instead describes an important characteristic associated with bus topology.
• A star topology connects endpoints through a central device such as a switch or hub.
• Statement 4 instead describes an important characteristic associated with bus topology.
వివరణ:
Question 23
ప్రశ్న 23
Consider the following statements about firewalls and packet filtering:
1. A basic packet filter can evaluate fields such as source IP address, destination IP address, protocol and transport-layer port numbers.
2. A stateful firewall maintains information about active connections.
3. Under a default-deny policy, traffic that is not explicitly permitted is blocked.
4. Network Address Translation by itself must always be considered a complete firewall implementation.
Which statements are correct?
1. A basic packet filter can evaluate fields such as source IP address, destination IP address, protocol and transport-layer port numbers.
2. A stateful firewall maintains information about active connections.
3. Under a default-deny policy, traffic that is not explicitly permitted is blocked.
4. Network Address Translation by itself must always be considered a complete firewall implementation.
Which statements are correct?
Explanation:
• Packet filters commonly use network- and transport-header fields to make permit/deny decisions.
• Stateful inspection adds connection-state tracking, while default deny blocks traffic lacking explicit authorization.
• NAT performs address translation and should not by itself be treated as a complete firewall function.
• Stateful inspection adds connection-state tracking, while default deny blocks traffic lacking explicit authorization.
• NAT performs address translation and should not by itself be treated as a complete firewall function.
వివరణ:
Question 24
ప్రశ్న 24
Consider the following security statements:
1. Authentication verifies an identity or identity claim.
2. Authorization determines what resources or operations an authenticated entity is permitted to access.
3. Encryption transforms plaintext into ciphertext primarily to protect confidentiality.
4. A password and a PIN necessarily constitute two-factor authentication because two secrets are entered.
Which statements are correct?
1. Authentication verifies an identity or identity claim.
2. Authorization determines what resources or operations an authenticated entity is permitted to access.
3. Encryption transforms plaintext into ciphertext primarily to protect confidentiality.
4. A password and a PIN necessarily constitute two-factor authentication because two secrets are entered.
Which statements are correct?
Explanation:
• Authentication, authorization and encryption address identity, permissions and confidentiality respectively.
• A password and PIN are both normally knowledge factors or 'something you know'.
• Using two authenticators from the same factor category does not by itself create two-factor authentication.
• A password and PIN are both normally knowledge factors or 'something you know'.
• Using two authenticators from the same factor category does not by itself create two-factor authentication.
వివరణ:
Question 25
ప్రశ్న 25
Consider the following statements about Internet, intranet, VPN and antivirus concepts:
1. The Internet is a global network of interconnected networks.
2. An intranet is a private organizational network or information environment intended primarily for authorized users.
3. A VPN can provide a protected virtual communication path across an existing network such as the Internet.
4. Keeping antivirus security intelligence current helps the product detect newly identified or modified threats.
Which statements are correct?
1. The Internet is a global network of interconnected networks.
2. An intranet is a private organizational network or information environment intended primarily for authorized users.
3. A VPN can provide a protected virtual communication path across an existing network such as the Internet.
4. Keeping antivirus security intelligence current helps the product detect newly identified or modified threats.
Which statements are correct?
Explanation:
• Statements 1 and 2 correctly distinguish the global Internet from a private organizational intranet.
• VPN technology can establish protected communications over existing networks rather than requiring an entirely separate physical network.
• Antivirus security-intelligence updates improve detection coverage for newly identified or changed malware, making statement 4 correct.
• VPN technology can establish protected communications over existing networks rather than requiring an entirely separate physical network.
• Antivirus security-intelligence updates improve detection coverage for newly identified or changed malware, making statement 4 correct.
వివరణ:
Answer Key సమాధానాల పట్టిక
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Question 1 ప్రశ్న 1Answer: B. 1 and 2 only సమాధానం: B.
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Question 2 ప్రశ్న 2Answer: D. 1, 2 and 3 only సమాధానం: D.
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Question 3 ప్రశ్న 3Answer: A. 1, 2 and 4 only సమాధానం: A.
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Question 4 ప్రశ్న 4Answer: C. 1, 2, 3 and 4 సమాధానం: C.
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Question 5 ప్రశ్న 5Answer: C. 1, 2, 3 and 4 సమాధానం: C.
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Question 6 ప్రశ్న 6Answer: A. 1, 2 and 3 only సమాధానం: A.
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Question 7 ప్రశ్న 7Answer: D. (a)-3, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-2 సమాధానం: D.
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Question 8 ప్రశ్న 8Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only సమాధానం: B.
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Question 9 ప్రశ్న 9Answer: A. (a)-3, (b)-1, (c)-4, (d)-2 సమాధానం: A.
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Question 10 ప్రశ్న 10Answer: C. 1, 2 and 3 only సమాధానం: C.
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Question 11 ప్రశ్న 11Answer: D. 1, 2 and 3 only సమాధానం: D.
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Question 12 ప్రశ్న 12Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only సమాధానం: B.
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Question 13 ప్రశ్న 13Answer: C. 1, 2 and 3 only సమాధానం: C.
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Question 14 ప్రశ్న 14Answer: A. 1, 2 and 3 only సమాధానం: A.
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Question 15 ప్రశ్న 15Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only సమాధానం: B.
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Question 16 ప్రశ్న 16Answer: D. (a)-2, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-3 సమాధానం: D.
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Question 17 ప్రశ్న 17Answer: A. 1, 2 and 3 only సమాధానం: A.
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Question 18 ప్రశ్న 18Answer: C. 1, 2, 3 and 4 సమాధానం: C.
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Question 19 ప్రశ్న 19Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only సమాధానం: B.
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Question 20 ప్రశ్న 20Answer: D. (a)-3, (b)-1, (c)-2, (d)-4 సమాధానం: D.
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Question 21 ప్రశ్న 21Answer: C. 1, 2 and 3 only సమాధానం: C.
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Question 22 ప్రశ్న 22Answer: A. 1, 2 and 3 only సమాధానం: A.
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Question 23 ప్రశ్న 23Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only సమాధానం: B.
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Question 24 ప్రశ్న 24Answer: D. 1, 2 and 3 only సమాధానం: D.
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Question 25 ప్రశ్న 25Answer: B. 1, 2, 3 and 4 సమాధానం: B.
