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Question 1
ప్రశ్న 1
Which statement correctly identifies the principal prestress losses that must be considered under the IS 1343 framework?
Explanation:
The prestressing force applied during stressing does not remain unchanged throughout the life of the member. IS 1343 requires due allowance for losses associated with creep and shrinkage of concrete, relaxation of prestressing steel, elastic shortening, friction and anchorage slip. Some of these losses occur during stressing or transfer, whereas others develop gradually with time. Their magnitude depends on the prestressing method, materials, tendon profile and construction sequence. Therefore Option C is correct.
వివరణ:
Question 2
ప్రశ్న 2
Which classification of prestress losses is generally correct?
Explanation:
Elastic shortening occurs during transfer or during the stressing sequence. Friction loss develops while a post-tensioning tendon is being stressed, and anchorage slip occurs when the tendon is seated or anchored. Creep and shrinkage of concrete develop progressively with time. Relaxation of prestressing steel is likewise a time-dependent reduction in steel stress under sustained strain conditions. Therefore Option B is correct.
వివరణ:
Question 3
ప్రశ్న 3
Which statement best distinguishes the prestressing force after immediate losses from the final effective prestressing force?
Explanation:
The jacking force is first reduced by losses occurring during stressing and transfer. These immediate effects can include friction, anchorage slip and elastic shortening as applicable. The resulting force is often described as the prestress after immediate losses. Creep, shrinkage and relaxation subsequently reduce this force further during service. The remaining value after the relevant losses is the effective prestressing force, so Option D is correct.
వివరణ:
Question 4
ప్రశ్న 4
For a concentrically prestressed pre-tensioned member, what simplified expression gives the loss of steel stress due to elastic shortening at transfer?
Explanation:
When the pre-tensioned tendons are released, the concrete shortens elastically under the transferred prestressing force. Because the bonded steel shortens with the concrete, its strain and stress decrease. Under the usual simplified concentric assumption, the steel stress loss equals the modular ratio multiplied by the concrete compressive stress adjacent to the tendon. The modular ratio is Ep/Ec. Therefore Option A is correct.
వివరణ:
Question 5
ప్రశ్న 5
A pre-tensioned member has Ep = 200000 MPa, Ec = 32000 MPa and concrete compressive stress of 10 MPa at the level of the tendon immediately after transfer. What is the elastic-shortening loss in prestressing steel stress?
Explanation:
The modular ratio is m = Ep/Ec = 200000/32000 = 6.25. For the stated pre-tensioned case, the elastic-shortening loss is m multiplied by the adjacent concrete stress. Therefore Delta fp = 6.25 × 10 = 62.5 MPa. This is an immediate loss occurring when prestress is transferred to the concrete. Therefore Option C is correct.
వివరణ:
Question 6
ప్రశ్న 6
For post-tensioned tendons that are not stressed simultaneously, which approximate IS 1343 expression may be used for the progressive elastic-shortening loss?
Explanation:
In a multi-tendon post-tensioned member, a tendon already anchored can lose stress when subsequently stressed tendons further compress the concrete. IS 1343 permits this progressive loss to be estimated using one-half of the product of modular ratio and the relevant average concrete stress. The expression represents an average effect of the stressing sequence. A more exact calculation may instead follow the actual order in which individual tendons are stressed. Therefore Option B is correct.
వివరణ:
Question 7
ప్రశ్న 7
For a sequentially post-tensioned member, take Ep/Ec = 6.25 and the relevant average concrete compressive stress adjacent to the tendons as 10 MPa. Using the half-product approximation, what is the elastic-shortening loss?
Explanation:
The approximate post-tensioning expression is Delta fp = 0.5 m fc. Substituting m = 6.25 and fc = 10 MPa gives 0.5 × 6.25 × 10. The resulting stress loss is 31.25 MPa. This approximation is appropriate to the stated sequential-stressing situation rather than a pre-tensioned transfer calculation. Therefore Option D is correct.
వివరణ:
Question 8
ప్రశ్న 8
Why is the elastic-shortening treatment of simultaneously stressed post-tensioned tendons different from that of tendons stressed one after another?
Explanation:
During simultaneous stressing, the tendon forces and concrete deformation develop together while the jacking system is controlling the applied force. There is therefore no sequence in which a later tendon shortens the concrete and reduces the force in an already anchored earlier tendon. In sequential stressing, that progressive interaction does occur. This is why IS 1343 specifically provides an approximation for post-tensioned tendons that are not stressed simultaneously. Therefore Option A is correct.
వివరణ:
Question 9
ప్రశ్న 9
What causes loss of prestress due to anchorage slip or draw-in in a post-tensioned member?
Explanation:
After a tendon has been stressed, it must be locked into its permanent anchorage. During seating, wedges, grips or the anchorage assembly can move by a small amount. The tendon consequently shortens and part of its elastic extension is lost. This reduction in elongation produces a corresponding reduction in tendon stress. Therefore Option C is correct.
వివరణ:
Question 10
ప్రశ్న 10
A straight post-tensioning tendon 20 m long experiences an anchorage draw-in of 4 mm. If Ep = 200000 MPa and the slip is assumed to produce uniform strain reduction over the full tendon length, what is the loss of steel stress?
Explanation:
Under the stated uniform-strain assumption, the lost tendon strain is Delta/L. This is 4/20000 = 0.0002. Multiplication by Ep = 200000 MPa gives a stress loss of 40 MPa. In an actual curved tendon with friction, the influence of draw-in can be confined to a shorter reverse-slip length and requires a more refined analysis. Therefore Option B is correct.
వివరణ:
Question 11
ప్రశ్న 11
For the same anchorage draw-in and the same prestressing-steel modulus, how does the simple anchorage-slip stress loss vary with tendon length?
Explanation:
The simple uniform-strain expression is Delta fp = Ep Delta/L. For the same anchorage slip Delta and the same steel modulus, the lost strain is inversely proportional to tendon length. A short tendon therefore loses a larger fraction of its extension than a long tendon for the same seating movement. This is one reason anchorage draw-in can be especially important in short post-tensioned members. Therefore Option D is correct.
వివరణ:
Question 12
ప్రశ్న 12
Which expression correctly represents frictional reduction of prestressing force along a post-tensioned tendon?
Explanation:
Friction causes the tendon force to decrease with distance from the jacking end. The standard exponential expression is Px = P0 exp[-(mu alpha + kx)]. The term mu alpha represents friction associated with intentional tendon curvature. The term kx represents the accumulated effect of unintended wobble or deviation along the duct. Therefore Option A is correct.
వివరణ:
Question 13
ప్రశ్న 13
In the friction-loss expression Px = P0 exp[-(mu alpha + kx)], what do the terms mu alpha and kx primarily represent?
Explanation:
The coefficient mu describes friction between the tendon and its surrounding duct associated with intentional curvature. The cumulative angular change alpha therefore produces the curvature-friction component mu alpha. Small unintended deviations of the duct or tendon are represented by the wobble coefficient k. Their effect accumulates with tendon length x and appears as kx. Therefore Option C is correct.
వివరణ:
Question 14
ప్రశ్న 14
A tendon is jacked to 1500 kN from one end. At a section 20 m from the jack, mu = 0.20, cumulative angular change alpha = 0.30 rad and k = 0.0015 per metre. Using Px = P0 exp[-(mu alpha + kx)], what are the tendon force and friction loss approximately?
Explanation:
The exponent is mu alpha + kx = 0.20 × 0.30 + 0.0015 × 20. This equals 0.09. Hence Px = 1500e^-0.09, which is approximately 1370.9 kN. The friction loss from the jacking end to that section is therefore about 1500 - 1370.9 = 129.1 kN. Therefore Option B is correct.
వివరణ:
Question 15
ప్రశ్న 15
What is an important structural effect of stressing a long post-tensioning tendon from both ends rather than from only one end?
Explanation:
Friction loss increases as the tendon force travels farther from a jacking end. If a sufficiently long tendon is stressed from both ends, each jack supplies force over only part of the tendon length. The largest friction reduction can consequently be smaller than with one-end stressing. The two force distributions generally meet somewhere within the tendon, often near the central region for a symmetric tendon. Therefore Option D is correct.
వివరణ:
Question 16
ప్రశ్న 16
Which statement correctly describes loss of prestress due to creep of concrete under IS 1343?
Explanation:
Creep is the gradual increase in concrete strain under sustained stress. Prestress itself and other permanently applied loads therefore contribute to the concrete stress relevant to creep loss. Short-duration effects such as transient live loads generally do not remain long enough to produce the corresponding ultimate creep strain. As the concrete creeps and shortens, bonded prestressing steel also loses strain and stress. Therefore Option B is correct.
వివరణ:
Question 17
ప్రశ్న 17
For a simplified bonded member with constant sustained concrete stress fc at tendon level, creep coefficient phi and modular ratio m = Ep/Ec, which expression gives the corresponding prestressing-steel stress loss?
Explanation:
Under the simplified linear-creep assumption, the elastic concrete strain is fc/Ec. The additional creep strain is phi times this elastic strain. The bonded prestressing steel experiences the compatible strain reduction, so its stress loss is Ep phi fc/Ec. Since m = Ep/Ec, the expression becomes Delta fp = m phi fc. Therefore Option C is correct.
వివరణ:
Question 18
ప్రశ్న 18
For a bonded prestressed member, Ep = 200000 MPa, Ec = 32000 MPa, creep coefficient phi = 1.6 and sustained concrete compressive stress at tendon level fc = 10 MPa. Using Delta fp = (Ep/Ec)phi fc, what is the creep loss?
Explanation:
The modular ratio is 200000/32000 = 6.25. The simplified creep-loss expression is m phi fc. Substitution gives 6.25 × 1.6 × 10 = 100 MPa. This represents a time-dependent loss arising from the sustained concrete strain. Therefore Option A is correct.
వివరణ:
Question 19
ప్రశ్న 19
Which statement correctly represents the IS 1343 treatment of prestress loss due to shrinkage of concrete?
Explanation:
Concrete shrinkage is a time-dependent shortening that occurs independently of sustained mechanical stress. Bonded prestressing steel is forced to shorten with the surrounding concrete and therefore loses tensile strain. IS 1343 relates the prestress loss to the prestressing-steel modulus multiplied by the applicable shrinkage strain. The current code's shrinkage calculation should be used rather than indiscriminately importing a simplified value from an older code edition. Therefore Option D is correct.
వివరణ:
Question 20
ప్రశ్న 20
The residual shrinkage strain applicable to a prestressed member has been calculated as 250 microstrain. If Ep = 200000 MPa, what loss of prestressing-steel stress results?
Explanation:
A strain of 250 microstrain is 250 × 10^-6. Shrinkage loss of steel stress is Ep multiplied by this strain. Thus Delta fp = 200000 × 250 × 10^-6 = 50 MPa. The calculation uses the residual shrinkage strain relevant after prestress has become effective. Therefore Option B is correct.
వివరణ:
Question 21
ప్రశ్న 21
Which statement most accurately describes relaxation loss in prestressing steel?
Explanation:
Prestressing steel held at a high tensile strain does not retain exactly the same stress indefinitely. Its stress gradually decreases with time, a phenomenon known as relaxation. The magnitude is strongly affected by the type of prestressing steel and the initial stress relative to its strength. Temperature and duration also influence the loss. Therefore Option A is correct.
వివరణ:
Question 22
ప్రశ్న 22
For a low-relaxation prestressing steel stressed initially at 0.7fp, take the IS 1343 1000-hour relaxation value as 2.5 percent and use the code provision that the tabulated value may be multiplied by 3 for long-term relaxation. If the initial steel stress is 1200 MPa, what long-term relaxation loss is obtained?
Explanation:
The stated 1000-hour relaxation loss is 2.5 percent of the initial steel stress. Using the specified long-term multiplier of 3 gives 7.5 percent. The corresponding loss is 0.075 × 1200 = 90 MPa. This calculation applies the supplied low-relaxation-steel data without mixing it with creep or shrinkage losses. Therefore Option C is correct.
వివరణ:
Question 23
ప్రశ్న 23
A tendon has area Ap = 1500 mm^2 and experiences a prestressing-steel stress loss of 50 MPa from one specified loss mechanism. What is the corresponding loss of prestressing force?
Explanation:
Prestressing force is steel stress multiplied by tendon area. A stress loss of 50 N/mm^2 acting over 1500 mm^2 gives a force reduction of 75000 N. This is equal to 75 kN. The conversion is useful when individual loss calculations are made in terms of steel stress rather than tendon force. Therefore Option D is correct.
వివరణ:
Question 24
ప్రశ్న 24
A calculation states that the tendon force P0 is already the force after friction, anchorage slip and elastic-shortening losses. What is the correct procedure when subsequently calculating the final effective prestress?
Explanation:
A loss should be deducted only once from the prestressing force. If P0 has explicitly been defined as the force after immediate losses, those same immediate losses are already incorporated in that value. Deducting them again would double-count the reduction and give an artificially low effective prestress. The subsequent calculation should therefore apply the distinct creep, shrinkage and relaxation effects using a consistent basis. Therefore Option B is correct.
వివరణ:
Question 25
ప్రశ్న 25
For an objective calculation, an initial prestressing-steel stress is 1400 MPa. Distinct immediate losses are 100 MPa from friction, 30 MPa from anchorage slip and 50 MPa from elastic shortening; subsequent distinct losses are 80 MPa from creep, 40 MPa from shrinkage and 60 MPa from relaxation. Neglect interaction among the stated losses. What are the final effective steel stress and total percentage loss?
Explanation:
The immediate losses total 100 + 30 + 50 = 180 MPa, leaving 1220 MPa after immediate effects. The time-dependent losses total another 80 + 40 + 60 = 180 MPa. The final effective stress is therefore 1400 - 360 = 1040 MPa. The total percentage loss is 360/1400 × 100, which is approximately 25.7 percent. Therefore Option A is correct.
వివరణ:
Answer Key సమాధానాల పట్టిక
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Question 1 ప్రశ్న 1Answer: C. Creep, shrinkage, relaxation of steel, elastic shortening of concrete, friction and anchorage slip are relevant losses సమాధానం: C.
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Question 2 ప్రశ్న 2Answer: B. Immediate: elastic shortening, friction and anchorage slip; time-dependent: creep, shrinkage and relaxation సమాధానం: B.
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Question 3 ప్రశ్న 3Answer: D. The force after immediate losses is subsequently reduced by time-dependent losses to obtain the effective prestressing force సమాధానం: D.
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Question 4 ప్రశ్న 4Answer: A. Delta fp = m fc, where m = Ep/Ec and fc is the adjacent concrete compressive stress సమాధానం: A.
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Question 5 ప్రశ్న 5Answer: C. 62.5 MPa సమాధానం: C.
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Question 6 ప్రశ్న 6Answer: B. 0.5 m fc, using the concrete stress adjacent to the tendons averaged along their length సమాధానం: B.
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Question 7 ప్రశ్న 7Answer: D. 31.25 MPa సమాధానం: D.
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Question 8 ప్రశ్న 8Answer: A. When tendons are stressed simultaneously, there is no progressive loss in earlier tendons caused by later tendons being stressed సమాధానం: A.
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Question 9 ప్రశ్న 9Answer: C. Movement of the tendon or deformation of the anchorage while the tendon is being seated after stressing సమాధానం: C.
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Question 10 ప్రశ్న 10Answer: B. 40 MPa సమాధానం: B.
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Question 11 ప్రశ్న 11Answer: D. It is greater for a shorter tendon because Delta fp = Ep Delta/L సమాధానం: D.
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Question 12 ప్రశ్న 12Answer: A. Px = P0 exp[-(mu alpha + kx)] సమాధానం: A.
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Question 13 ప్రశ్న 13Answer: C. Curvature friction and wobble friction respectively సమాధానం: C.
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Question 14 ప్రశ్న 14Answer: B. 1371 kN and 129 kN సమాధానం: B.
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Question 15 ప్రశ్న 15Answer: D. It reduces the maximum distance over which friction accumulates from a live end and can improve the tendon-force distribution సమాధానం: D.
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Question 16 ప్రశ్న 16Answer: B. Creep loss is associated with sustained concrete stresses from permanently applied loads including prestress, while short-duration stresses may be ignored సమాధానం: B.
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Question 17 ప్రశ్న 17Answer: C. Delta fp = m phi fc సమాధానం: C.
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Question 18 ప్రశ్న 18Answer: A. 100 MPa సమాధానం: A.
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Question 19 ప్రశ్న 19Answer: D. The steel stress loss is obtained from Ep times the applicable concrete shrinkage strain calculated using the current shrinkage provisions సమాధానం: D.
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Question 20 ప్రశ్న 20Answer: B. 50 MPa సమాధానం: B.
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Question 21 ప్రశ్న 21Answer: A. It is a gradual reduction of steel stress with time under sustained strain and depends on steel type, initial stress level, age and temperature సమాధానం: A.
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Question 22 ప్రశ్న 22Answer: C. 90 MPa సమాధానం: C.
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Question 23 ప్రశ్న 23Answer: D. 75 kN సమాధానం: D.
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Question 24 ప్రశ్న 24Answer: B. Apply only the additional distinct time-dependent losses, with any required interaction treated consistently సమాధానం: B.
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Question 25 ప్రశ్న 25Answer: A. 1040 MPa and approximately 25.7 percent సమాధానం: A.
