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Question 1
ప్రశ్న 1
At a DOS/Windows command prompt, which command deletes the file REPORT.TXT from the current directory?
Explanation:
• DEL is used to delete one or more files from the command line.
• DEL REPORT.TXT therefore deletes the specified file from the current directory, subject to permissions and other restrictions.
• TYPE displays file contents, COPY duplicates files and ATTRIB displays or changes file attributes.
• DEL REPORT.TXT therefore deletes the specified file from the current directory, subject to permissions and other restrictions.
• TYPE displays file contents, COPY duplicates files and ATTRIB displays or changes file attributes.
వివరణ:
Question 2
ప్రశ్న 2
Which command displays the directory structure beginning at the current directory and, with the specified switch, also displays the files contained in those directories?
Explanation:
• TREE displays the directory structure in a hierarchical form.
• The /F option additionally displays the names of files contained in the listed directories.
• DIR lists directory contents differently and does not produce the same tree-style hierarchy.
• The /F option additionally displays the names of files contained in the listed directories.
• DIR lists directory contents differently and does not produce the same tree-style hierarchy.
వివరణ:
Question 3
ప్రశ్న 3
Which command sets the Hidden attribute on a file named CASE.DAT?
Explanation:
• In the ATTRIB command, +H sets the Hidden attribute on the specified file.
• -H removes the Hidden attribute, while +R sets the Read-only attribute.
• Therefore ATTRIB +H CASE.DAT performs the required operation.
• -H removes the Hidden attribute, while +R sets the Read-only attribute.
• Therefore ATTRIB +H CASE.DAT performs the required operation.
వివరణ:
Question 4
ప్రశ్న 4
Which DOS/Windows command displays the textual contents of a file named NOTES.TXT directly in the command-prompt window?
Explanation:
• TYPE displays the contents of one or more text files at the command prompt.
• TYPE NOTES.TXT therefore outputs the file's textual contents to the console.
• REN changes names, MD creates directories and ATTRIB manages file attributes.
• TYPE NOTES.TXT therefore outputs the file's textual contents to the console.
• REN changes names, MD creates directories and ATTRIB manages file attributes.
వివరణ:
Question 5
ప్రశ్న 5
A Windows administrator needs to troubleshoot startup behavior by reviewing boot options and selectively controlling certain services. Which Windows tool is opened by running msconfig?
Explanation:
• Running msconfig opens the System Configuration utility.
• It provides options related to boot configuration, startup troubleshooting and services.
• Registry Editor, Disk Management and Device Manager are separate Windows administrative tools.
• It provides options related to boot configuration, startup troubleshooting and services.
• Registry Editor, Disk Management and Device Manager are separate Windows administrative tools.
వివరణ:
Question 6
ప్రశ్న 6
Which Windows tool is most appropriate for examining recorded Application, System and Security events when diagnosing repeated operating-system or application failures?
Explanation:
• Event Viewer provides access to event logs generated by Windows, applications and security components.
• Errors, warnings and informational events can help identify the time and nature of a system problem.
• Ordinary Windows accessories do not provide equivalent event-log analysis.
• Errors, warnings and informational events can help identify the time and nature of a system problem.
• Ordinary Windows accessories do not provide equivalent event-log analysis.
వివరణ:
Question 7
ప్రశ్న 7
Which Run command opens the Windows Disk Management console?
Explanation:
• diskmgmt.msc opens the Disk Management console.
• Disk Management is used for operations involving disks, partitions, volumes, formatting and drive letters.
• devmgmt.msc opens Device Manager, services.msc opens Services and eventvwr.msc opens Event Viewer.
• Disk Management is used for operations involving disks, partitions, volumes, formatting and drive letters.
• devmgmt.msc opens Device Manager, services.msc opens Services and eventvwr.msc opens Event Viewer.
వివరణ:
Question 8
ప్రశ్న 8
A desktop repeatedly loses the correct system date and time after being unplugged for several hours. Which hardware component should be investigated first?
Explanation:
• The motherboard coin-cell battery maintains the real-time clock when external power is unavailable.
• A weak battery can cause the clock and, on some systems, firmware settings to reset after power is removed.
• CPU cooling and network or printer components are unrelated to retention of the motherboard clock.
• A weak battery can cause the clock and, on some systems, firmware settings to reset after power is removed.
• CPU cooling and network or printer components are unrelated to retention of the motherboard clock.
వివరణ:
Question 9
ప్రశ్న 9
Which connector normally supplies the main motherboard power from an ATX desktop power supply?
Explanation:
• Modern ATX motherboards normally receive their principal power connection through a 24-pin ATX connector.
• Additional processor power is normally provided through a separate CPU power connector.
• SATA data, RJ45 and DisplayPort connectors serve storage, networking and display functions respectively.
• Additional processor power is normally provided through a separate CPU power connector.
• SATA data, RJ45 and DisplayPort connectors serve storage, networking and display functions respectively.
వివరణ:
Question 10
ప్రశ్న 10
Which motherboard expansion slot is normally intended for a high-performance discrete graphics card in a modern desktop computer?
Explanation:
• Discrete graphics cards commonly use a PCI Express x16 expansion slot.
• PCI Express provides the high-bandwidth connection required by modern graphics adapters.
• DIMM slots hold RAM, SATA connectors attach storage devices and the CPU socket holds the processor.
• PCI Express provides the high-bandwidth connection required by modern graphics adapters.
• DIMM slots hold RAM, SATA connectors attach storage devices and the CPU socket holds the processor.
వివరణ:
Question 11
ప్రశ్న 11
Which DBMS feature can substantially improve suitable search and sorting operations but consumes additional storage and can add maintenance overhead when records are inserted, deleted or updated?
Explanation:
• An index provides an auxiliary data structure that can make suitable record lookups and ordering operations faster.
• The DBMS must maintain the index when indexed data changes, creating additional write and storage overhead.
• Indexing therefore involves a performance trade-off rather than improving every operation without cost.
• The DBMS must maintain the index when indexed data changes, creating additional write and storage overhead.
• Indexing therefore involves a performance trade-off rather than improving every operation without cost.
వివరణ:
Question 12
ప్రశ్న 12
In a relational DBMS, which feature is best described as a virtual table whose contents are derived from a stored query over one or more underlying tables?
Explanation:
• A conventional database view represents the result of a defined query as a virtual table.
• The underlying data normally remains stored in the base tables rather than being duplicated in the ordinary view.
• Views can simplify complex queries and expose selected subsets of database information.
• The underlying data normally remains stored in the base tables rather than being duplicated in the ordinary view.
• Views can simplify complex queries and expose selected subsets of database information.
వివరణ:
Question 13
ప్రశ్న 13
Which SQL constraint is specifically intended to enforce a condition such as Salary >= 0 on values stored in a table?
Explanation:
• A CHECK constraint requires inserted or updated values to satisfy a specified Boolean condition.
• A rule such as Salary >= 0 can therefore reject values that violate the defined domain condition.
• ORDER BY and SELECT are query operations, while COMMIT is a transaction-control operation.
• A rule such as Salary >= 0 can therefore reject values that violate the defined domain condition.
• ORDER BY and SELECT are query operations, while COMMIT is a transaction-control operation.
వివరణ:
Question 14
ప్రశ్న 14
A database transaction has completed all required changes successfully. Which command makes those changes permanent as the completed transaction?
Explanation:
• COMMIT completes the current transaction and makes its successful modifications durable according to the DBMS transaction mechanism.
• ROLLBACK is used to undo applicable uncommitted transaction changes.
• SELECT retrieves data, while DELETE removes qualifying rows.
• ROLLBACK is used to undo applicable uncommitted transaction changes.
• SELECT retrieves data, while DELETE removes qualifying rows.
వివరణ:
Question 15
ప్రశ్న 15
In Microsoft Word, which feature is most appropriate for replacing every occurrence of one phrase with another and can also search for or replace specified formatting?
Explanation:
• Find and Replace can locate repeated text and substitute replacement text throughout a document.
• Advanced options can also search for or apply formatting characteristics.
• Mail Merge creates personalized documents and does not perform this general replacement operation.
• Advanced options can also search for or apply formatting characteristics.
• Mail Merge creates personalized documents and does not perform this general replacement operation.
వివరణ:
Question 16
ప్రశ్న 16
An Excel formula must always refer to cell F1 even when the formula is copied both across columns and down rows. Which reference should be used?
Explanation:
• $F$1 fixes both column F and row 1, making it an absolute reference.
• Copying the formula in any direction therefore leaves this reference unchanged.
• F$1 and $F1 are mixed references because only one component is fixed.
• Copying the formula in any direction therefore leaves this reference unchanged.
• F$1 and $F1 are mixed references because only one component is fixed.
వివరణ:
Question 17
ప్రశ్న 17
What value is returned by the Excel formula =ROUNDUP(12.341,2)?
Explanation:
• ROUNDUP rounds a number away from zero to the specified number of digits.
• With two decimal places, 12.341 must be increased to the next hundredth because additional non-zero digits remain.
• Therefore the result is 12.35.
• With two decimal places, 12.341 must be increased to the next hundredth because additional non-zero digits remain.
• Therefore the result is 12.35.
వివరణ:
Question 18
ప్రశ్న 18
A PowerPoint author wants to change the common logo, fonts and placeholder arrangement used by many slides without editing those slides individually. Which feature is most appropriate?
Explanation:
• Slide Master controls common presentation-wide design and layout elements inherited by associated layouts and slides.
• Updating the master can therefore propagate common branding and formatting changes efficiently.
• Animation Pane controls animations, while Presenter View and Slide Sorter serve different purposes.
• Updating the master can therefore propagate common branding and formatting changes efficiently.
• Animation Pane controls animations, while Presenter View and Slide Sorter serve different purposes.
వివరణ:
Question 19
ప్రశ్న 19
In Microsoft Access, which field property is primarily used to specify a structured data-entry pattern, such as a required arrangement of digits and characters for a telephone number?
Explanation:
• An Input Mask controls the pattern in which data is entered into a field or control.
• It can guide users to enter characters in predefined positions, which is useful for consistently formatted values.
• Validation rules test acceptable values, whereas an input mask primarily controls the entry pattern.
• It can guide users to enter characters in predefined positions, which is useful for consistently formatted values.
• Validation rules test acceptable values, whereas an input mask primarily controls the entry pattern.
వివరణ:
Question 20
ప్రశ్న 20
Which Windows command displays detailed TCP/IP configuration information including items such as IP addresses, physical addresses, DHCP status and configured DNS servers?
Explanation:
• ipconfig /all displays detailed configuration information for Windows network adapters.
• The output can include IP addressing, physical addresses, DHCP configuration, gateways and DNS servers.
• tracert diagnoses network paths, while nslookup is primarily used for DNS queries.
• The output can include IP addressing, physical addresses, DHCP configuration, gateways and DNS servers.
• tracert diagnoses network paths, while nslookup is primarily used for DNS queries.
వివరణ:
Question 21
ప్రశ్న 21
Which command-line utility traces the sequence of IP routers or hops that packets encounter on the path toward a destination?
Explanation:
• tracert sends probes with controlled IP Time To Live values to reveal successive routing hops toward a destination.
• It is useful for identifying where delays or failures may occur along an IP path.
• FORMAT, CHKDSK and ATTRIB perform storage or file-related functions rather than route tracing.
• It is useful for identifying where delays or failures may occur along an IP path.
• FORMAT, CHKDSK and ATTRIB perform storage or file-related functions rather than route tracing.
వివరణ:
Question 22
ప్రశ్న 22
Which Internet service translates or resolves human-readable domain names such as example.com into information including the corresponding IP address?
Explanation:
• DNS stands for Domain Name System and provides distributed name-resolution services.
• It allows applications to obtain information such as IP addresses associated with domain names.
• SMTP handles email transfer, FTP handles file transfer and DHCP provides host network configuration.
• It allows applications to obtain information such as IP addresses associated with domain names.
• SMTP handles email transfer, FTP handles file transfer and DHCP provides host network configuration.
వివరణ:
Question 23
ప్రశ్న 23
Under a firewall policy of default deny, what should happen to network traffic that does not match any rule explicitly permitting it?
Explanation:
• A default-deny security policy permits only traffic that has been explicitly authorized.
• Traffic for which no applicable allow rule exists is therefore rejected or blocked.
• This approach limits unnecessary exposure compared with a default-allow policy.
• Traffic for which no applicable allow rule exists is therefore rejected or blocked.
• This approach limits unnecessary exposure compared with a default-allow policy.
వివరణ:
Question 24
ప్రశ్న 24
A user signs in with a password and then provides a fingerprint that is independently verified. Which security mechanism is demonstrated?
Explanation:
• A password represents a knowledge factor: something the user knows.
• A fingerprint represents an inherence or biometric factor: something the user is.
• Using independently verified factors from different categories constitutes multi-factor authentication.
• A fingerprint represents an inherence or biometric factor: something the user is.
• Using independently verified factors from different categories constitutes multi-factor authentication.
వివరణ:
Question 25
ప్రశ్న 25
Which security mechanism creates a protected virtual communication path that can allow a remote user or remote network to communicate securely across an untrusted network such as the Internet?
Explanation:
• A Virtual Private Network provides a protected virtual communication path over an existing network infrastructure.
• VPN technologies can protect remote-access or site-to-site communications using mechanisms such as encryption and authentication.
• Disk maintenance, OCR and RAID are unrelated to secure network tunneling.
• VPN technologies can protect remote-access or site-to-site communications using mechanisms such as encryption and authentication.
• Disk maintenance, OCR and RAID are unrelated to secure network tunneling.
వివరణ:
Answer Key సమాధానాల పట్టిక
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Question 1 ప్రశ్న 1Answer: C. DEL REPORT.TXT సమాధానం: C.
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Question 2 ప్రశ్న 2Answer: A. TREE /F సమాధానం: A.
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Question 3 ప్రశ్న 3Answer: D. ATTRIB +H CASE.DAT సమాధానం: D.
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Question 4 ప్రశ్న 4Answer: B. TYPE NOTES.TXT సమాధానం: B.
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Question 5 ప్రశ్న 5Answer: C. System Configuration సమాధానం: C.
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Question 6 ప్రశ్న 6Answer: A. Event Viewer సమాధానం: A.
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Question 7 ప్రశ్న 7Answer: D. diskmgmt.msc సమాధానం: D.
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Question 8 ప్రశ్న 8Answer: B. RTC/CMOS coin-cell battery సమాధానం: B.
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Question 9 ప్రశ్న 9Answer: A. 24-pin ATX power connector సమాధానం: A.
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Question 10 ప్రశ్న 10Answer: C. PCI Express x16 slot సమాధానం: C.
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Question 11 ప్రశ్న 11Answer: D. Index సమాధానం: D.
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Question 12 ప్రశ్న 12Answer: B. View సమాధానం: B.
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Question 13 ప్రశ్న 13Answer: C. CHECK సమాధానం: C.
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Question 14 ప్రశ్న 14Answer: A. COMMIT సమాధానం: A.
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Question 15 ప్రశ్న 15Answer: D. Find and Replace సమాధానం: D.
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Question 16 ప్రశ్న 16Answer: B. $F$1 సమాధానం: B.
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Question 17 ప్రశ్న 17Answer: C. 12.35 సమాధానం: C.
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Question 18 ప్రశ్న 18Answer: A. Slide Master సమాధానం: A.
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Question 19 ప్రశ్న 19Answer: D. Input Mask సమాధానం: D.
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Question 20 ప్రశ్న 20Answer: B. ipconfig /all సమాధానం: B.
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Question 21 ప్రశ్న 21Answer: C. tracert సమాధానం: C.
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Question 22 ప్రశ్న 22Answer: A. DNS సమాధానం: A.
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Question 23 ప్రశ్న 23Answer: D. It should be blocked. సమాధానం: D.
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Question 24 ప్రశ్న 24Answer: C. Multi-factor authentication using knowledge and biometric factors సమాధానం: C.
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Question 25 ప్రశ్న 25Answer: B. VPN సమాధానం: B.
