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Question 1
ప్రశ్న 1
An Access query should ask the user to enter a District name each time it runs. Which feature is most appropriate?
Explanation:
• A parameter query prompts for a value at run time.
• The supplied value can be used in query criteria.
• This makes one saved query reusable for different requested values.
• The supplied value can be used in query criteria.
• This makes one saved query reusable for different requested values.
వివరణ:
Question 2
ప్రశ్న 2
Assertion (A): Using appropriate electrostatic-discharge precautions is important while installing memory modules and expansion cards.
Reason (R): Electrostatic discharge can damage sensitive semiconductor components even when the discharge is not visibly obvious.
Choose the correct answer.
Reason (R): Electrostatic discharge can damage sensitive semiconductor components even when the discharge is not visibly obvious.
Choose the correct answer.
Explanation:
• Modern integrated circuits can be damaged by static-electricity discharge.
• Grounding and proper handling reduce the risk of latent or immediate component damage.
• The Reason directly explains why ESD precautions matter during assembly.
• Grounding and proper handling reduce the risk of latent or immediate component damage.
• The Reason directly explains why ESD precautions matter during assembly.
వివరణ:
Question 3
ప్రశ్న 3
A transaction repeats a query for all cases with Status='Open'. Another transaction inserts a new matching row and commits, so the repeated query returns an extra row. What is this phenomenon?
Explanation:
• A phantom occurs when a repeated predicate or range query sees a changed set of qualifying rows.
• Insertions or deletions committed by another transaction can create or remove such phantoms.
• The phenomenon differs from a non-repeatable read of the same existing row.
• Insertions or deletions committed by another transaction can create or remove such phantoms.
• The phenomenon differs from a non-repeatable read of the same existing row.
వివరణ:
Question 4
ప్రశ్న 4
Which technology is used to read data from standard optical media such as CDs and DVDs?
Explanation:
• Optical discs encode information that is read using a laser-based optical pickup.
• Magnetic heads are used by traditional HDDs rather than optical discs.
• Optical storage and semiconductor memory rely on different physical principles.
• Magnetic heads are used by traditional HDDs rather than optical discs.
• Optical storage and semiconductor memory rely on different physical principles.
వివరణ:
Question 5
ప్రశ్న 5
Which device is most directly responsible for converting analog audio signals from a microphone into digital data and digital audio into output for speakers?
Explanation:
• An audio interface includes analog-to-digital and digital-to-analog conversion functions.
• It connects microphones, speakers or headphones to the computer's digital audio subsystem.
• Motherboard sockets and power components do not perform audio conversion.
• It connects microphones, speakers or headphones to the computer's digital audio subsystem.
• Motherboard sockets and power components do not perform audio conversion.
వివరణ:
Question 6
ప్రశ్న 6
Which comparison of symmetric-key and asymmetric-key cryptography is technically correct?
Explanation:
• Symmetric systems use the same secret key or closely related shared secret for encryption/decryption operations.
• Asymmetric systems use mathematically related public and private keys.
• Practical protocols often combine both approaches.
• Asymmetric systems use mathematically related public and private keys.
• Practical protocols often combine both approaches.
వివరణ:
Question 7
ప్రశ్న 7
Which Word option is intended to use different headers or footers on odd-numbered and even-numbered pages?
Explanation:
• Different Odd & Even Pages supports book-style or duplex layouts.
• Odd and even pages can carry separate header/footer content.
• Different First Page affects only the first page of a section.
• Odd and even pages can carry separate header/footer content.
• Different First Page affects only the first page of a section.
వివరణ:
Question 8
ప్రశ్న 8
Two independent versions of a Word document already exist. Which feature is most appropriate for identifying their differences?
Explanation:
• Compare Documents analyzes two existing versions and marks their differences.
• Track Changes is most useful when revisions are recorded during editing.
• Comparison is appropriate when separate versions were edited independently.
• Track Changes is most useful when revisions are recorded during editing.
• Comparison is appropriate when separate versions were edited independently.
వివరణ:
Question 9
ప్రశ్న 9
A transaction reads the same row twice. Between the two reads, another transaction commits an update to that row, so the first transaction sees different values. What anomaly is this?
Explanation:
• A non-repeatable read occurs when a repeated read of the same row returns a different committed value.
• The change is caused by another transaction committing an update between the reads.
• A phantom read instead concerns a changing set of rows matching a range or predicate.
• The change is caused by another transaction committing an update between the reads.
• A phantom read instead concerns a changing set of rows matching a range or predicate.
వివరణ:
Question 10
ప్రశ్న 10
Which statement about an NVMe SSD is correct?
Explanation:
• NVMe was designed to exploit low-latency non-volatile storage over PCI Express.
• It is distinct from the older SATA/AHCI storage path.
• NVMe SSDs remain non-volatile secondary storage devices.
• It is distinct from the older SATA/AHCI storage path.
• NVMe SSDs remain non-volatile secondary storage devices.
వివరణ:
Question 11
ప్రశ్న 11
Assertion (A): Using a standard user account for routine work can reduce security risk compared with using an administrator account for every task.
Reason (R): Least privilege limits unnecessary system-wide permissions and reduces the impact of some mistakes or malicious actions.
Choose the correct answer.
Reason (R): Least privilege limits unnecessary system-wide permissions and reduces the impact of some mistakes or malicious actions.
Choose the correct answer.
Explanation:
• Routine users rarely need full administrative control for every activity.
• Limiting privileges reduces the number of actions a compromised or mistaken process can perform.
• The Reason directly explains the security value of a standard account.
• Limiting privileges reduces the number of actions a compromised or mistaken process can perform.
• The Reason directly explains the security value of a standard account.
వివరణ:
Question 12
ప్రశ్న 12
In a standard public-key digital-signature system, which key is used by the signer to create the signature?
Explanation:
• The signer uses the private key to generate a digital signature.
• The corresponding public key is used to verify the signature.
• Digital signatures support authenticity and integrity rather than confidentiality by themselves.
• The corresponding public key is used to verify the signature.
• Digital signatures support authenticity and integrity rather than confidentiality by themselves.
వివరణ:
Question 13
ప్రశ్న 13
Which PowerPoint feature is most appropriate for inserting selected slides from another existing presentation into the current one?
Explanation:
• Reuse Slides allows selected slides from another presentation to be inserted.
• The user can often choose whether to keep source formatting.
• Goal Seek, Mail Merge and Crosstab Query belong to other Office workflows.
• The user can often choose whether to keep source formatting.
• Goal Seek, Mail Merge and Crosstab Query belong to other Office workflows.
వివరణ:
Question 14
ప్రశ్న 14
Which Windows command is intended to verify protected system files and repair corrupted copies when possible?
Explanation:
• System File Checker examines protected Windows system files.
• The /scannow option performs an immediate integrity scan and repair attempt.
• Formatting a disk is destructive and is not a normal system-file repair command.
• The /scannow option performs an immediate integrity scan and repair attempt.
• Formatting a disk is destructive and is not a normal system-file repair command.
వివరణ:
Question 15
ప్రశ్న 15
Which statement correctly compares polling and interrupt-driven I/O?
Explanation:
• Polling consumes CPU effort by repeatedly testing device state.
• Interrupts let the CPU do other work until an event requires service.
• The best method depends on timing and workload, but their operating principles are distinct.
• Interrupts let the CPU do other work until an event requires service.
• The best method depends on timing and workload, but their operating principles are distinct.
వివరణ:
Question 16
ప్రశ్న 16
Which statement best describes UEFI Secure Boot?
Explanation:
• Secure Boot protects the boot chain by validating software allowed to execute during startup.
• Its purpose is boot integrity and trust, not general file encryption or hardware diagnostics.
• Endpoint security controls are still required after the operating system starts.
• Its purpose is boot integrity and trust, not general file encryption or hardware diagnostics.
• Endpoint security controls are still required after the operating system starts.
వివరణ:
Question 17
ప్రశ్న 17
A main form shows one Case record and should display all EvidenceItems related to that CaseID. Which design is most appropriate?
Explanation:
• A subform is appropriate for displaying the many-side of a one-to-many relationship.
• Link Master Fields and Link Child Fields can synchronize the current case with its evidence records.
• This preserves relational structure instead of packing multiple child records into one field.
• Link Master Fields and Link Child Fields can synchronize the current case with its evidence records.
• This preserves relational structure instead of packing multiple child records into one field.
వివరణ:
Question 18
ప్రశ్న 18
Consider the following deadlock-related conditions:
1. Mutual exclusion means at least one resource is non-shareable.
2. Hold and wait means a process holds resources while waiting for additional resources.
3. Circular wait means a cycle exists in which each participant waits for a resource held by another.
4. Eliminating every possible circular wait can help prevent deadlock.
Which statements are correct?
1. Mutual exclusion means at least one resource is non-shareable.
2. Hold and wait means a process holds resources while waiting for additional resources.
3. Circular wait means a cycle exists in which each participant waits for a resource held by another.
4. Eliminating every possible circular wait can help prevent deadlock.
Which statements are correct?
Explanation:
• Mutual exclusion, hold-and-wait and circular wait are classic conditions associated with deadlock.
• Breaking at least one necessary deadlock condition can prevent deadlock formation.
• All four statements are technically consistent with deadlock theory.
• Breaking at least one necessary deadlock condition can prevent deadlock formation.
• All four statements are technically consistent with deadlock theory.
వివరణ:
Question 19
ప్రశ్న 19
Which component is primarily responsible for rendering graphics and generating display output in a computer with a discrete graphics adapter?
Explanation:
• A GPU performs graphics-rendering and display-related computation.
• A discrete graphics card normally includes the GPU, graphics memory and display interfaces.
• The RTC battery and input/storage components serve unrelated functions.
• A discrete graphics card normally includes the GPU, graphics memory and display interfaces.
• The RTC battery and input/storage components serve unrelated functions.
వివరణ:
Question 20
ప్రశ్న 20
Which normal form is specifically violated when a non-key attribute depends on only part of a composite candidate key?
Explanation:
• 2NF requires a relation already in 1NF to eliminate partial dependency on part of a composite candidate key.
• A non-key attribute depending on only one component of a composite key is a partial dependency.
• 3NF addresses transitive dependency after 2NF requirements are satisfied.
• A non-key attribute depending on only one component of a composite key is a partial dependency.
• 3NF addresses transitive dependency after 2NF requirements are satisfied.
వివరణ:
Question 21
ప్రశ్న 21
Which Access field property is most appropriate for enforcing a condition such as Marks >= 0 And Marks <= 100?
Explanation:
• Validation Rule specifies a condition that entered data must satisfy.
• A range condition can reject values outside 0 through 100.
• Caption and Format change display rather than enforce the underlying value range.
• A range condition can reject values outside 0 through 100.
• Caption and Format change display rather than enforce the underlying value range.
వివరణ:
Question 22
ప్రశ్న 22
One page in the middle of a Word report must be landscape while surrounding pages remain portrait. What is the best approach?
Explanation:
• Section breaks allow different page-layout settings within one document.
• A section can have its own orientation, headers, footers and numbering settings.
• A normal page break starts a new page but does not create an independently formatted section.
• A section can have its own orientation, headers, footers and numbering settings.
• A normal page break starts a new page but does not create an independently formatted section.
వివరణ:
Question 23
ప్రశ్న 23
A user presses Shift+Delete on a local file in File Explorer and confirms the deletion. Which statement is most accurate?
Explanation:
• Shift+Delete normally bypasses the Recycle Bin for local files.
• Bypassing the Recycle Bin does not itself guarantee secure data erasure.
• File recovery, if possible, depends on backups or lower-level recovery conditions.
• Bypassing the Recycle Bin does not itself guarantee secure data erasure.
• File recovery, if possible, depends on backups or lower-level recovery conditions.
వివరణ:
Question 24
ప్రశ్న 24
Which statement best describes a VPN?
Explanation:
• VPN technologies protect traffic over an untrusted or shared network.
• They can support remote-access or site-to-site connectivity.
• A VPN secures communications but does not disinfect endpoints.
• They can support remote-access or site-to-site connectivity.
• A VPN secures communications but does not disinfect endpoints.
వివరణ:
Question 25
ప్రశ్న 25
Which PowerPoint view is designed to show the presenter the current slide, next slide, notes and timing while the audience sees only the slide show?
Explanation:
• Presenter View provides private presenter information during delivery.
• The audience display can remain limited to the slide-show output.
• It is useful for notes, timing and navigation.
• The audience display can remain limited to the slide-show output.
• It is useful for notes, timing and navigation.
వివరణ:
Question 26
ప్రశ్న 26
Match List I with List II:
List I
(a) Memory Address Register (MAR)
(b) Memory Data Register (MDR)
(c) Instruction Register (IR)
(d) Program Counter (PC)
List II
1. Holds the instruction currently being processed
2. Holds the address for a memory access
3. Holds data being transferred to or from memory
4. Holds the address of the next instruction
Choose the correct matching code.
List I
(a) Memory Address Register (MAR)
(b) Memory Data Register (MDR)
(c) Instruction Register (IR)
(d) Program Counter (PC)
List II
1. Holds the instruction currently being processed
2. Holds the address for a memory access
3. Holds data being transferred to or from memory
4. Holds the address of the next instruction
Choose the correct matching code.
Explanation:
• MAR identifies the memory location involved in an access, while MDR carries the transferred data.
• IR stores the current instruction, and PC identifies the next instruction address.
• These registers perform distinct roles during the fetch-execute cycle.
• IR stores the current instruction, and PC identifies the next instruction address.
• These registers perform distinct roles during the fetch-execute cycle.
వివరణ:
Question 27
ప్రశ్న 27
Assertion (A): A USB scanner can be physically connected and still fail to operate correctly if the required device driver is missing or corrupted.
Reason (R): The operating system commonly relies on a device driver to communicate with and control hardware-specific functions.
Choose the correct answer.
Reason (R): The operating system commonly relies on a device driver to communicate with and control hardware-specific functions.
Choose the correct answer.
Explanation:
• Physical attachment alone does not guarantee usable device communication.
• Drivers provide the software interface between the operating system and hardware.
• The Reason directly explains why a connected peripheral may remain unusable.
• Drivers provide the software interface between the operating system and hardware.
• The Reason directly explains why a connected peripheral may remain unusable.
వివరణ:
Question 28
ప్రశ్న 28
In Excel, what does =IFERROR(A1/B1,0) return when B1 contains 0 and the division would otherwise produce an error?
Explanation:
• A1/B1 produces a division-by-zero error when B1 is zero.
• IFERROR returns its second argument when the first expression evaluates to an error.
• Therefore the displayed result is 0.
• IFERROR returns its second argument when the first expression evaluates to an error.
• Therefore the displayed result is 0.
వివరణ:
Question 29
ప్రశ్న 29
Five identical 3 TB drives are configured as conventional RAID 5. Ignoring overhead, what is the approximate usable capacity?
Explanation:
• RAID 5 usable capacity is approximately (N−1) times the smallest drive capacity.
• With five 3 TB drives: (5−1)×3 TB = 12 TB.
• The equivalent capacity of one drive is used for distributed parity.
• With five 3 TB drives: (5−1)×3 TB = 12 TB.
• The equivalent capacity of one drive is used for distributed parity.
వివరణ:
Question 30
ప్రశ్న 30
Which operating-system function is primarily responsible for organizing files into directories and maintaining metadata such as names, locations and permissions?
Explanation:
• The filesystem organizes persistent data into files and directory structures.
• It also maintains metadata and implements storage allocation and access rules.
• CPU arithmetic and power regulation are hardware functions.
• It also maintains metadata and implements storage allocation and access rules.
• CPU arithmetic and power regulation are hardware functions.
వివరణ:
Question 31
ప్రశ్న 31
A remote employee needs secure access to a private internal HR web portal over the public Internet. Which arrangement is most appropriate?
Explanation:
• Remote intranet access should preserve authentication, authorization and protected communication.
• A VPN can provide a secure path into the organizational network.
• Making a private portal public or disabling security controls defeats the purpose of an intranet.
• A VPN can provide a secure path into the organizational network.
• Making a private portal public or disabling security controls defeats the purpose of an intranet.
వివరణ:
Question 32
ప్రశ్న 32
Match List I with List II:
List I
(a) Ready
(b) Running
(c) Waiting/Blocked
(d) Terminated
List II
1. Eligible to be scheduled on the CPU
2. Currently executing on a CPU
3. Waiting for an event such as I/O completion
4. Finished execution
Choose the correct matching code.
List I
(a) Ready
(b) Running
(c) Waiting/Blocked
(d) Terminated
List II
1. Eligible to be scheduled on the CPU
2. Currently executing on a CPU
3. Waiting for an event such as I/O completion
4. Finished execution
Choose the correct matching code.
Explanation:
• Process states describe why a process is or is not using the CPU.
• Ready processes can run when scheduled, while blocked processes await an event.
• Terminated processes have completed or been ended.
• Ready processes can run when scheduled, while blocked processes await an event.
• Terminated processes have completed or been ended.
వివరణ:
Question 33
ప్రశ్న 33
Which PowerPoint print layout is most suitable when the presenter wants one slide per page together with that slide's speaker notes?
Explanation:
• Notes Pages combine a slide with its associated speaker notes.
• They are useful as a presenter reference or annotated handout.
• Handout layouts primarily arrange slide thumbnails rather than full notes pages.
• They are useful as a presenter reference or annotated handout.
• Handout layouts primarily arrange slide thumbnails rather than full notes pages.
వివరణ:
Question 34
ప్రశ్న 34
Which ordering correctly represents the usual geographical scope from smallest to largest?
Explanation:
• A LAN covers a limited local area such as a building or campus.
• A MAN spans a metropolitan or city-scale area, while a WAN spans much larger regions.
• The ordering therefore progresses from local to metropolitan to wide area.
• A MAN spans a metropolitan or city-scale area, while a WAN spans much larger regions.
• The ordering therefore progresses from local to metropolitan to wide area.
వివరణ:
Question 35
ప్రశ్న 35
Consider the following statements about Word styles and long documents:
1. Heading styles help create consistent document structure.
2. An automatic Table of Contents can use heading styles to build entries.
3. Modifying a style can update text that uses that style.
4. Styles are available only for pictures and cannot format text.
Which statements are correct?
1. Heading styles help create consistent document structure.
2. An automatic Table of Contents can use heading styles to build entries.
3. Modifying a style can update text that uses that style.
4. Styles are available only for pictures and cannot format text.
Which statements are correct?
Explanation:
• Word styles provide reusable formatting for structural elements such as headings.
• Structured headings can feed an automatic Table of Contents and the Navigation Pane.
• Styles are widely used for text formatting, so statement 4 is false.
• Structured headings can feed an automatic Table of Contents and the Navigation Pane.
• Styles are widely used for text formatting, so statement 4 is false.
వివరణ:
Question 36
ప్రశ్న 36
In Excel, B2:B6 contain {East,West,East,East,West} and C2:C6 contain {40,60,70,55,90}. What is returned by =COUNTIFS(B2:B6,"East",C2:C6,">=50")?
Explanation:
• The East rows contain values 40, 70 and 55.
• Among these, 70 and 55 satisfy the >=50 condition.
• Therefore exactly two rows satisfy both criteria.
• Among these, 70 and 55 satisfy the >=50 condition.
• Therefore exactly two rows satisfy both criteria.
వివరణ:
Question 37
ప్రశ్న 37
Which Access query type summarizes aggregate values in a matrix using row headings and column headings?
Explanation:
• A Crosstab query summarizes values across two dimensions.
• It places one grouping along rows and another along columns with an aggregate in the intersecting cells.
• This is useful for compact matrix-style summaries.
• It places one grouping along rows and another along columns with an aggregate in the intersecting cells.
• This is useful for compact matrix-style summaries.
వివరణ:
Question 38
ప్రశ్న 38
Which statement best describes buffering?
Explanation:
• A buffer absorbs temporary differences between data-production and data-consumption rates.
• It is widely used in I/O and communication systems.
• Buffering does not imply encryption or permanent storage.
• It is widely used in I/O and communication systems.
• Buffering does not imply encryption or permanent storage.
వివరణ:
Question 39
ప్రశ్న 39
Which feature is most appropriate for copying the formatting of selected text and applying it to another text selection without copying the text itself?
Explanation:
• Format Painter copies formatting characteristics from one selection to another.
• The actual text content is not duplicated by the feature.
• It is useful for quickly applying consistent formatting.
• The actual text content is not duplicated by the feature.
• It is useful for quickly applying consistent formatting.
వివరణ:
Question 40
ప్రశ్న 40
Which sequence best represents a typical Word Mail Merge workflow?
Explanation:
• Mail Merge begins with a main document and a recipient data source.
• Merge fields are inserted where personalized values should appear.
• Previewing before Finish & Merge helps verify the generated documents.
• Merge fields are inserted where personalized values should appear.
• Previewing before Finish & Merge helps verify the generated documents.
వివరణ:
Question 41
ప్రశ్న 41
A monitor has a native resolution of 1920 × 1080 pixels. How many pixels are displayed in one full frame?
Explanation:
• Pixel count is horizontal pixels multiplied by vertical pixels.
• 1920×1080 = 2,073,600 pixels.
• Resolution describes spatial pixel dimensions, not refresh rate or physical screen size.
• 1920×1080 = 2,073,600 pixels.
• Resolution describes spatial pixel dimensions, not refresh rate or physical screen size.
వివరణ:
Question 42
ప్రశ్న 42
Consider the following statements about normalization:
1. 1NF requires atomic values rather than repeating groups in one field.
2. 2NF addresses partial dependency on part of a composite candidate key.
3. 3NF addresses transitive dependency of non-key attributes through other non-key attributes.
4. The purpose of normalization is to deliberately maximize unnecessary data duplication.
Which statements are correct?
1. 1NF requires atomic values rather than repeating groups in one field.
2. 2NF addresses partial dependency on part of a composite candidate key.
3. 3NF addresses transitive dependency of non-key attributes through other non-key attributes.
4. The purpose of normalization is to deliberately maximize unnecessary data duplication.
Which statements are correct?
Explanation:
• The first three statements summarize common exam-level normalization rules.
• Normalization aims to reduce undesirable redundancy and update anomalies.
• Therefore the claim that normalization maximizes duplication is false.
• Normalization aims to reduce undesirable redundancy and update anomalies.
• Therefore the claim that normalization maximizes duplication is false.
వివరణ:
Question 43
ప్రశ్న 43
Which option allows the first page of a Word section to use a different header or footer from later pages in the same section?
Explanation:
• Different First Page separates the first-page header/footer from subsequent pages.
• It is useful for title pages and chapter-opening pages.
• Odd/even settings instead distinguish pages by parity.
• It is useful for title pages and chapter-opening pages.
• Odd/even settings instead distinguish pages by parity.
వివరణ:
Question 44
ప్రశ్న 44
Under a default-deny firewall policy, what should happen to traffic that does not match an explicit allow rule?
Explanation:
• Default deny permits only traffic that has been explicitly authorized.
• Unmatched traffic is therefore rejected or dropped according to policy.
• This approach limits unintended exposure of services.
• Unmatched traffic is therefore rejected or dropped according to policy.
• This approach limits unintended exposure of services.
వివరణ:
Question 45
ప్రశ్న 45
An antivirus product classifies a legitimate utility as malware. What is this error called?
Explanation:
• A false positive occurs when harmless content is incorrectly flagged as malicious.
• A false negative occurs when real malware is missed.
• Security products balance detection sensitivity against false-alarm risk.
• A false negative occurs when real malware is missed.
• Security products balance detection sensitivity against false-alarm risk.
వివరణ:
Question 46
ప్రశ్న 46
Which comparison between SRAM and DRAM is correct?
Explanation:
• SRAM uses bistable storage cells and typically offers lower latency.
• DRAM stores information as charge and must be refreshed periodically.
• The higher density and lower cost of DRAM make it suitable for larger main-memory capacities.
• DRAM stores information as charge and must be refreshed periodically.
• The higher density and lower cost of DRAM make it suitable for larger main-memory capacities.
వివరణ:
Question 47
ప్రశ్న 47
A PC's firmware detects both an old system disk and a newly cloned replacement SSD, but the machine still starts from the old disk. What should be checked first?
Explanation:
• Because both drives are detected, the immediate issue is likely boot selection rather than physical detection.
• Firmware boot order or boot-manager entries determine which system loader is started.
• Application settings cannot determine which physical system disk firmware boots.
• Firmware boot order or boot-manager entries determine which system loader is started.
• Application settings cannot determine which physical system disk firmware boots.
వివరణ:
Question 48
ప్రశ్న 48
Which device allows one keyboard, one monitor and one mouse to be switched among several computers?
Explanation:
• KVM stands for Keyboard, Video and Mouse.
• A KVM switch lets a single console control multiple computers.
• It is especially useful in server rooms or test environments.
• A KVM switch lets a single console control multiple computers.
• It is especially useful in server rooms or test environments.
వివరణ:
Question 49
ప్రశ్న 49
A transaction has successfully committed and the server then loses power. Which ACID property requires the committed change to remain after recovery?
Explanation:
• Durability requires committed transaction effects to persist despite later failures.
• Logging and stable storage are commonly used to support recovery.
• Atomicity instead governs whether a transaction completes fully or not at all.
• Logging and stable storage are commonly used to support recovery.
• Atomicity instead governs whether a transaction completes fully or not at all.
వివరణ:
Question 50
ప్రశ్న 50
Six nodes are connected in a full mesh with one direct point-to-point link between every pair. How many links are required?
Explanation:
• A full mesh requires n(n−1)/2 unique links.
• For six nodes: 6×5÷2 = 15.
• Division by two avoids counting each pair twice.
• For six nodes: 6×5÷2 = 15.
• Division by two avoids counting each pair twice.
వివరణ:
Question 51
ప్రశ్న 51
An Access table has an AutoNumber primary key named CaseID. Which field type is normally suitable for CaseID as a foreign key in a related table?
Explanation:
• Access commonly relates an AutoNumber primary key to a Number foreign key whose Field Size is Long Integer.
• The related fields must have compatible data types and sizes.
• Text, Boolean and Attachment fields are not appropriate matches for a standard AutoNumber key.
• The related fields must have compatible data types and sizes.
• Text, Boolean and Attachment fields are not appropriate matches for a standard AutoNumber key.
వివరణ:
Question 52
ప్రశ్న 52
Which statement correctly distinguishes a thread from a process?
Explanation:
• A thread is a schedulable execution path within a process.
• Threads of one process commonly share code, data and operating-system resources.
• Processes provide stronger address-space separation than threads within the same process.
• Threads of one process commonly share code, data and operating-system resources.
• Processes provide stronger address-space separation than threads within the same process.
వివరణ:
Question 53
ప్రశ్న 53
Which operating-system technique places print jobs in a disk or memory queue so that applications do not need to wait for the printer to finish each page before continuing?
Explanation:
• Spooling stores jobs temporarily and feeds them to a slower peripheral in sequence.
• Printer spooling lets applications submit jobs without directly controlling the printer for the entire output duration.
• Paging manages virtual memory, not print-job queues.
• Printer spooling lets applications submit jobs without directly controlling the printer for the entire output duration.
• Paging manages virtual memory, not print-job queues.
వివరణ:
Question 54
ప్రశ్న 54
Consider the following statements about intranets:
1. An intranet can use HTTP or HTTPS and ordinary web browsers.
2. Access to intranet resources can be restricted to authorized users.
3. An intranet may use private IP addressing internally.
4. Using web technologies automatically makes every intranet resource publicly accessible on the Internet.
Which statements are correct?
1. An intranet can use HTTP or HTTPS and ordinary web browsers.
2. Access to intranet resources can be restricted to authorized users.
3. An intranet may use private IP addressing internally.
4. Using web technologies automatically makes every intranet resource publicly accessible on the Internet.
Which statements are correct?
Explanation:
• Intranets often use the same protocols and software technologies as Internet services.
• Their defining feature is restricted organizational access, not a unique protocol stack.
• Private addressing and access controls are common, while public exposure is not required.
• Their defining feature is restricted organizational access, not a unique protocol stack.
• Private addressing and access controls are common, while public exposure is not required.
వివరణ:
Question 55
ప్రశ్న 55
Which Excel feature is designed to summarize and reorganize large tables interactively by placing fields in rows, columns, values and filters?
Explanation:
• PivotTables summarize tabular data using field-based grouping and aggregation.
• Users can rearrange fields to analyze the same data from different perspectives.
• The feature is specific to spreadsheet/data-analysis workflows.
• Users can rearrange fields to analyze the same data from different perspectives.
• The feature is specific to spreadsheet/data-analysis workflows.
వివరణ:
Question 56
ప్రశ్న 56
A modern discrete graphics card that requires high PCI Express bandwidth is normally installed in which motherboard slot?
Explanation:
• High-performance graphics cards commonly use a PCI Express x16 physical slot.
• PCIe provides high-bandwidth point-to-point expansion connectivity.
• DIMM and SATA interfaces are intended for memory and storage respectively.
• PCIe provides high-bandwidth point-to-point expansion connectivity.
• DIMM and SATA interfaces are intended for memory and storage respectively.
వివరణ:
Question 57
ప్రశ్న 57
What is the primary purpose of virtual memory?
Explanation:
• Virtual memory separates a process's logical address space from physical RAM.
• Pages can be moved between RAM and backing storage according to the memory-management policy.
• Virtual memory enables protection and flexible address-space use but does not eliminate page faults.
• Pages can be moved between RAM and backing storage according to the memory-management policy.
• Virtual memory enables protection and flexible address-space use but does not eliminate page faults.
వివరణ:
Question 58
ప్రశ్న 58
Assertion (A): Enforcing referential integrity can prevent a child record from referring to a nonexistent parent record.
Reason (R): Referential integrity requires related foreign-key values to correspond to valid referenced key values, except where Null is permitted by the design.
Choose the correct answer.
Reason (R): Referential integrity requires related foreign-key values to correspond to valid referenced key values, except where Null is permitted by the design.
Choose the correct answer.
Explanation:
• Referential integrity protects consistency between related tables.
• It prevents orphan references when a child row points to a missing parent key.
• The Reason directly explains the Assertion.
• It prevents orphan references when a child row points to a missing parent key.
• The Reason directly explains the Assertion.
వివరణ:
Question 59
ప్రశ్న 59
Assertion (A): Ordinary RAM loses its stored working data when power is removed.
Reason (R): Ordinary system RAM is volatile memory.
Choose the correct answer.
Reason (R): Ordinary system RAM is volatile memory.
Choose the correct answer.
Explanation:
• Volatile memory requires power to retain its stored state.
• Main RAM is therefore used for temporary working data rather than permanent file storage.
• The Reason directly explains the Assertion.
• Main RAM is therefore used for temporary working data rather than permanent file storage.
• The Reason directly explains the Assertion.
వివరణ:
Question 60
ప్రశ్న 60
Which Access query type changes field values in existing records that meet specified criteria?
Explanation:
• An Update query modifies existing records in bulk.
• Criteria determine which records are affected.
• A backup and preview of affected rows are prudent before executing a large update.
• Criteria determine which records are affected.
• A backup and preview of affected rows are prudent before executing a large update.
వివరణ:
Question 61
ప్రశ్న 61
Transaction T1 updates a row but has not committed. Transaction T2 reads that uncommitted value. What anomaly has occurred?
Explanation:
• A dirty read occurs when one transaction observes another transaction's uncommitted data.
• If the writer later rolls back, the reader has used a value that never became committed.
• Higher isolation levels can prevent this behavior.
• If the writer later rolls back, the reader has used a value that never became committed.
• Higher isolation levels can prevent this behavior.
వివరణ:
Question 62
ప్రశ్న 62
Which Word feature displays document headings in a hierarchical pane and allows quick navigation to those headings?
Explanation:
• The Navigation Pane can display headings when proper heading styles are used.
• Selecting a heading jumps to that location in the document.
• It is especially useful for navigating long structured documents.
• Selecting a heading jumps to that location in the document.
• It is especially useful for navigating long structured documents.
వివరణ:
Question 63
ప్రశ్న 63
Six identical 2 TB drives are configured as conventional RAID 6. Ignoring overhead, what is the approximate usable capacity and normal fault tolerance?
Explanation:
• RAID 6 usable capacity is approximately (N−2)×drive capacity.
• For six 2 TB drives: (6−2)×2 TB = 8 TB.
• Dual parity allows conventional RAID 6 to tolerate any two member-drive failures.
• For six 2 TB drives: (6−2)×2 TB = 8 TB.
• Dual parity allows conventional RAID 6 to tolerate any two member-drive failures.
వివరణ:
Question 64
ప్రశ్న 64
Which statement about Word section breaks is INCORRECT?
Which statement is INCORRECT?
Which statement is INCORRECT?
Explanation:
• A page break changes pagination but does not itself create a new section.
• Section breaks are required when section-specific layout or header/footer settings are needed.
• Next Page and Continuous are different section-break types.
• Section breaks are required when section-specific layout or header/footer settings are needed.
• Next Page and Continuous are different section-break types.
వివరణ:
Question 65
ప్రశ్న 65
A worksheet has headers in row 1 and labels in column A. Which feature keeps selected rows or columns visible while the user scrolls?
Explanation:
• Freeze Panes locks selected rows or columns in the visible window while other cells scroll.
• It is useful for maintaining context in large worksheets.
• It does not alter the stored data or formulas.
• It is useful for maintaining context in large worksheets.
• It does not alter the stored data or formulas.
వివరణ:
Question 66
ప్రశ్న 66
During CPU scheduling, what operation is meant by a context switch?
Explanation:
• A context switch changes which process or thread is executing on the CPU.
• The operating system preserves enough execution state to resume the displaced task later.
• Context switching introduces overhead because useful application work is paused during the switch.
• The operating system preserves enough execution state to resume the displaced task later.
• Context switching introduces overhead because useful application work is paused during the switch.
వివరణ:
Question 67
ప్రశ్న 67
Which Access query type is used primarily to retrieve records that satisfy specified criteria without modifying the underlying data?
Explanation:
• A Select query retrieves and displays data.
• It can filter, sort, calculate and join data without inherently changing stored rows.
• Delete, Append and Update queries are action queries that modify data.
• It can filter, sort, calculate and join data without inherently changing stored rows.
• Delete, Append and Update queries are action queries that modify data.
వివరణ:
Question 68
ప్రశ్న 68
When Windows component-store corruption is suspected as well as protected system-file corruption, which repair sequence is generally appropriate?
Explanation:
• DISM can repair the Windows image/component store used as a repair source.
• SFC can then verify and repair protected system files.
• The sequence avoids destructive disk operations.
• SFC can then verify and repair protected system files.
• The sequence avoids destructive disk operations.
వివరణ:
Question 69
ప్రశ్న 69
What value is returned by =MOD(29,6) in Excel?
Explanation:
• MOD returns the remainder after division.
• 29 = (6×4)+5.
• Therefore the remainder is 5.
• 29 = (6×4)+5.
• Therefore the remainder is 5.
వివరణ:
Question 70
ప్రశ్న 70
Which statement about preemptive scheduling is INCORRECT?
Which statement is INCORRECT?
Which statement is INCORRECT?
Explanation:
• Preemptive scheduling specifically permits the operating system to interrupt a running task.
• Time slices and priority decisions can trigger such switches.
• The last statement instead describes a non-preemptive restriction.
• Time slices and priority decisions can trigger such switches.
• The last statement instead describes a non-preemptive restriction.
వివరణ:
Question 71
ప్రశ్న 71
Which statement about a database index is correct?
Explanation:
• Indexes provide auxiliary structures that can accelerate lookups and ordering.
• They must be updated when indexed data changes, adding write overhead.
• The usefulness of an index depends on query patterns and data distribution.
• They must be updated when indexed data changes, adding write overhead.
• The usefulness of an index depends on query patterns and data distribution.
వివరణ:
Question 72
ప్రశ్న 72
Assertion (A): ROLLBACK can be used to cancel applicable uncommitted changes in a transaction.
Reason (R): Transaction control allows a DBMS to distinguish work that should be committed from work that should be undone.
Choose the correct answer.
Reason (R): Transaction control allows a DBMS to distinguish work that should be committed from work that should be undone.
Choose the correct answer.
Explanation:
• ROLLBACK is a transaction-control operation.
• It is used to undo work that has not been committed, subject to the DBMS and transaction boundaries.
• The Reason directly explains why rollback is useful.
• It is used to undo work that has not been committed, subject to the DBMS and transaction boundaries.
• The Reason directly explains why rollback is useful.
వివరణ:
Question 73
ప్రశ్న 73
A presentation contains 80 slides, but one audience should see only 10 selected slides in a specific order without deleting the others. Which feature is most appropriate?
Explanation:
• A Custom Slide Show defines a subset and sequence of slides from the same presentation.
• The unused slides remain available for other audiences or presentations.
• This avoids creating a destructive duplicate or deleting content.
• The unused slides remain available for other audiences or presentations.
• This avoids creating a destructive duplicate or deleting content.
వివరణ:
Question 74
ప్రశ్న 74
Which statement best defines a candidate key?
Explanation:
• A candidate key must uniquely identify every tuple.
• It is minimal, meaning no proper subset of its attributes preserves uniqueness.
• One candidate key may be chosen as the primary key.
• It is minimal, meaning no proper subset of its attributes preserves uniqueness.
• One candidate key may be chosen as the primary key.
వివరణ:
Question 75
ప్రశ్న 75
In Excel, A1:A4 contain 10, 20, 30 and 40. What value is returned by =SUM(A1:A4)?
Explanation:
• SUM adds all numeric values in the specified range.
• 10+20+30+40 = 100.
• The function returns the total, not the average or maximum.
• 10+20+30+40 = 100.
• The function returns the total, not the average or maximum.
వివరణ:
Question 76
ప్రశ్న 76
Consider the following statements about SRAM and DRAM:
1. SRAM generally has lower access latency than DRAM.
2. DRAM requires periodic refresh while powered.
3. SRAM is commonly used for processor caches.
4. DRAM is non-volatile and retains data indefinitely without power.
Which statements are correct?
1. SRAM generally has lower access latency than DRAM.
2. DRAM requires periodic refresh while powered.
3. SRAM is commonly used for processor caches.
4. DRAM is non-volatile and retains data indefinitely without power.
Which statements are correct?
Explanation:
• SRAM is fast and does not require DRAM-style refresh, making it suitable for caches.
• DRAM offers higher density and lower cost per bit, making it common for main memory.
• Both ordinary SRAM and DRAM are volatile, so statement 4 is false.
• DRAM offers higher density and lower cost per bit, making it common for main memory.
• Both ordinary SRAM and DRAM are volatile, so statement 4 is false.
వివరణ:
Question 77
ప్రశ్న 77
In the traditional dial-up context, why is the device called a modem?
Explanation:
• The term modem is derived from modulator-demodulator.
• Traditional dial-up modems converted digital data to signals suitable for analog telephone lines and performed the reverse conversion.
• Routing and database management are separate functions.
• Traditional dial-up modems converted digital data to signals suitable for analog telephone lines and performed the reverse conversion.
• Routing and database management are separate functions.
వివరణ:
Question 78
ప్రశ్న 78
In Excel, A2 contains 72 and B2 contains 58. What does =IF(AND(A2>=60,B2>=60),"PASS","FAIL") return?
Explanation:
• A2>=60 is TRUE, but B2>=60 is FALSE.
• AND therefore returns FALSE.
• The IF function returns the value assigned to its false branch: FAIL.
• AND therefore returns FALSE.
• The IF function returns the value assigned to its false branch: FAIL.
వివరణ:
Question 79
ప్రశ్న 79
Assertion (A): An encrypted VPN connection does not by itself make a malware-infected laptop trustworthy.
Reason (R): VPN encryption protects the communication path but does not automatically remove malware already running on the endpoint.
Choose the correct answer.
Reason (R): VPN encryption protects the communication path but does not automatically remove malware already running on the endpoint.
Choose the correct answer.
Explanation:
• Communication protection and endpoint security are separate concerns.
• Compromised software can continue operating even while its network traffic is encrypted.
• The Reason directly explains why additional endpoint controls remain necessary.
• Compromised software can continue operating even while its network traffic is encrypted.
• The Reason directly explains why additional endpoint controls remain necessary.
వివరణ:
Question 80
ప్రశ్న 80
Consider the following statements about page replacement and thrashing:
1. Frequent page faults can cause significant performance overhead.
2. Thrashing occurs when excessive paging leaves little time for useful execution.
3. Increasing multiprogramming pressure beyond available memory can contribute to thrashing.
4. Thrashing is a printer-only problem unrelated to memory management.
Which statements are correct?
1. Frequent page faults can cause significant performance overhead.
2. Thrashing occurs when excessive paging leaves little time for useful execution.
3. Increasing multiprogramming pressure beyond available memory can contribute to thrashing.
4. Thrashing is a printer-only problem unrelated to memory management.
Which statements are correct?
Explanation:
• Page faults require operating-system handling and may involve slow storage I/O.
• When faults dominate execution, the system can enter a thrashing condition.
• Thrashing is therefore a virtual-memory performance issue, not a printer fault.
• When faults dominate execution, the system can enter a thrashing condition.
• Thrashing is therefore a virtual-memory performance issue, not a printer fault.
వివరణ:
Question 81
ప్రశ్న 81
Which Access query type permanently removes records that satisfy specified criteria?
Explanation:
• A Delete query removes qualifying records from a table.
• Its effect can be broad, so the criteria and backup should be checked carefully.
• Select queries do not inherently delete stored rows.
• Its effect can be broad, so the criteria and backup should be checked carefully.
• Select queries do not inherently delete stored rows.
వివరణ:
Question 82
ప్రశ్న 82
Why is a dot-matrix printer classified as an impact printer?
Explanation:
• Dot-matrix printing creates marks through mechanical impact.
• Pins strike an inked ribbon against the paper to form characters or graphics.
• Laser and inkjet printers are normally classified as non-impact technologies.
• Pins strike an inked ribbon against the paper to form characters or graphics.
• Laser and inkjet printers are normally classified as non-impact technologies.
వివరణ:
Question 83
ప్రశ్న 83
Consider the following statements about sorting and filtering in Excel:
1. Sorting changes the order in which records are arranged.
2. Filtering temporarily hides rows that do not satisfy selected criteria.
3. Filtering normally deletes the hidden records permanently.
4. A multi-level sort can sort by one field and then by another.
Which statements are correct?
1. Sorting changes the order in which records are arranged.
2. Filtering temporarily hides rows that do not satisfy selected criteria.
3. Filtering normally deletes the hidden records permanently.
4. A multi-level sort can sort by one field and then by another.
Which statements are correct?
Explanation:
• Sorting reorders records, while filtering controls which records are currently displayed.
• Filtering does not normally delete rows; it changes visibility.
• Multi-level sorting allows primary and secondary sort keys.
• Filtering does not normally delete rows; it changes visibility.
• Multi-level sorting allows primary and secondary sort keys.
వివరణ:
Question 84
ప్రశ్న 84
Which protocol name identifies HTTP protected by TLS for secure web communication?
Explanation:
• HTTPS is HTTP protected by TLS for secure web communication.
• It provides cryptographic protection for browser–server traffic when correctly configured.
• FTP, SMTP and Telnet are different application protocols with different primary purposes.
• It provides cryptographic protection for browser–server traffic when correctly configured.
• FTP, SMTP and Telnet are different application protocols with different primary purposes.
వివరణ:
Question 85
ప్రశ్న 85
In Excel, A1:A4 contain 10, 20, 30 and 40. What value is returned by =AVERAGE(A1:A4)?
Explanation:
• AVERAGE adds the numeric values and divides by the count of numeric cells.
• (10+20+30+40)÷4 = 25.
• The result is distinct from SUM and MAX.
• (10+20+30+40)÷4 = 25.
• The result is distinct from SUM and MAX.
వివరణ:
Question 86
ప్రశ్న 86
Consider the following statements about HDDs and SSDs:
1. A traditional HDD uses rotating magnetic platters and movable read/write heads.
2. A typical SSD stores data in non-volatile semiconductor memory and has no mechanical seek arm.
3. Random-access latency is generally lower on an SSD than on a mechanical HDD.
4. An SSD loses all stored files immediately when power is removed.
Which statements are correct?
1. A traditional HDD uses rotating magnetic platters and movable read/write heads.
2. A typical SSD stores data in non-volatile semiconductor memory and has no mechanical seek arm.
3. Random-access latency is generally lower on an SSD than on a mechanical HDD.
4. An SSD loses all stored files immediately when power is removed.
Which statements are correct?
Explanation:
• HDDs are electromechanical devices, whereas SSDs are semiconductor storage devices.
• The absence of seek and rotational delay gives SSDs much lower random-access latency in typical use.
• SSDs are non-volatile, so statement 4 is false.
• The absence of seek and rotational delay gives SSDs much lower random-access latency in typical use.
• SSDs are non-volatile, so statement 4 is false.
వివరణ:
Question 87
ప్రశ్న 87
Consider the following statements about Windows administrative tools:
1. Device Manager can be used to inspect device status and drivers.
2. Disk Management can create and manage partitions or volumes.
3. Task Scheduler can run tasks in response to schedules or triggers.
4. Event Viewer is the primary tool for editing Microsoft Excel formulas.
Which statements are correct?
1. Device Manager can be used to inspect device status and drivers.
2. Disk Management can create and manage partitions or volumes.
3. Task Scheduler can run tasks in response to schedules or triggers.
4. Event Viewer is the primary tool for editing Microsoft Excel formulas.
Which statements are correct?
Explanation:
• The first three statements correctly describe common Windows administrative tools.
• Event Viewer records and displays event logs; it does not edit spreadsheet formulas.
• Choosing the right tool prevents unrelated or destructive troubleshooting steps.
• Event Viewer records and displays event logs; it does not edit spreadsheet formulas.
• Choosing the right tool prevents unrelated or destructive troubleshooting steps.
వివరణ:
Question 88
ప్రశ్న 88
A four-drive RAID 10 consists of mirrored pairs A1/A2 and B1/B2, with data striped across the two mirror pairs. Which statement is correct?
Explanation:
• RAID 10 remains usable only while every required mirror pair retains at least one working member.
• Losing A1 and B1 leaves A2 and B2, so each mirror pair still has a surviving copy.
• Losing both A1 and A2 destroys one complete mirror pair and therefore loses part of the striped data set.
• Losing A1 and B1 leaves A2 and B2, so each mirror pair still has a surviving copy.
• Losing both A1 and A2 destroys one complete mirror pair and therefore loses part of the striped data set.
వివరణ:
Question 89
ప్రశ్న 89
Assertion (A): Updating an automatic Table of Contents after inserting several pages can correct outdated page numbers.
Reason (R): The Table of Contents is generated from document structure and pagination information that may change as the document is edited.
Choose the correct answer.
Reason (R): The Table of Contents is generated from document structure and pagination information that may change as the document is edited.
Choose the correct answer.
Explanation:
• Adding or removing content can shift heading page numbers.
• Updating the Table of Contents refreshes the entries and page references.
• The Reason directly explains why the update is necessary.
• Updating the Table of Contents refreshes the entries and page references.
• The Reason directly explains why the update is necessary.
వివరణ:
Question 90
ప్రశ్న 90
Consider the following statements about PowerPoint:
1. Slide Sorter view is useful for rearranging slide order.
2. Presenter View can display speaker notes privately to the presenter.
3. Slide Master helps control common design elements across slides.
4. A transition is applied to individual characters within a paragraph rather than between slides.
Which statements are correct?
1. Slide Sorter view is useful for rearranging slide order.
2. Presenter View can display speaker notes privately to the presenter.
3. Slide Master helps control common design elements across slides.
4. A transition is applied to individual characters within a paragraph rather than between slides.
Which statements are correct?
Explanation:
• Slide Sorter, Presenter View and Slide Master perform the functions stated.
• Transitions apply between slides, not to individual characters as object-level effects.
• Animations, not transitions, are used for text or objects within a slide.
• Transitions apply between slides, not to individual characters as object-level effects.
• Animations, not transitions, are used for text or objects within a slide.
వివరణ:
Question 91
ప్రశ్న 91
Why is Safe Mode useful in Windows troubleshooting?
Explanation:
• Safe Mode reduces the number of loaded drivers and services.
• If a problem disappears in Safe Mode, a normally loaded driver or service may be involved.
• Safe Mode is diagnostic rather than a physical hardware-repair mechanism.
• If a problem disappears in Safe Mode, a normally loaded driver or service may be involved.
• Safe Mode is diagnostic rather than a physical hardware-repair mechanism.
వివరణ:
Question 92
ప్రశ్న 92
A processor clock runs at 3.2 GHz. Ignoring implementation details, approximately how many clock cycles occur in one second?
Explanation:
• One gigahertz equals one billion cycles per second.
• Therefore 3.2 GHz corresponds to approximately 3.2×10^9 clock cycles each second.
• Clock frequency alone does not state how many instructions complete per cycle.
• Therefore 3.2 GHz corresponds to approximately 3.2×10^9 clock cycles each second.
• Clock frequency alone does not state how many instructions complete per cycle.
వివరణ:
Question 93
ప్రశ్న 93
Match List I with List II:
List I
(a) ping
(b) tracert
(c) ipconfig
(d) nslookup
List II
1. Tests basic IP reachability using ICMP echo where permitted
2. Shows successive IP hops toward a destination
3. Displays/manages local TCP/IP configuration
4. Queries DNS name information
Choose the correct matching code.
List I
(a) ping
(b) tracert
(c) ipconfig
(d) nslookup
List II
1. Tests basic IP reachability using ICMP echo where permitted
2. Shows successive IP hops toward a destination
3. Displays/manages local TCP/IP configuration
4. Queries DNS name information
Choose the correct matching code.
Explanation:
• These command-line tools diagnose different parts of network operation.
• ping tests reachability, tracert examines path hops, ipconfig shows local configuration, and nslookup queries DNS.
• Selecting the correct tool depends on the symptom being investigated.
• ping tests reachability, tracert examines path hops, ipconfig shows local configuration, and nslookup queries DNS.
• Selecting the correct tool depends on the symptom being investigated.
వివరణ:
Question 94
ప్రశ్న 94
Match List I with List II:
List I
(a) Scheduler
(b) Memory manager
(c) File system
(d) Device manager
List II
1. Chooses which ready task receives CPU time
2. Allocates and tracks memory resources
3. Organizes files and directories
4. Coordinates hardware devices through drivers
Choose the correct matching code.
List I
(a) Scheduler
(b) Memory manager
(c) File system
(d) Device manager
List II
1. Chooses which ready task receives CPU time
2. Allocates and tracks memory resources
3. Organizes files and directories
4. Coordinates hardware devices through drivers
Choose the correct matching code.
Explanation:
• Operating systems divide core responsibilities among scheduling, memory, storage and device-management subsystems.
• Each function controls a different class of system resource.
• Understanding these divisions helps identify the correct subsystem when troubleshooting.
• Each function controls a different class of system resource.
• Understanding these divisions helps identify the correct subsystem when troubleshooting.
వివరణ:
Question 95
ప్రశ్న 95
In Excel, A2:A6 contain 40, 55, 50, 70 and 35. What value is returned by =COUNTIF(A2:A6,">50")?
Explanation:
• COUNTIF counts cells satisfying the criterion.
• Only 55 and 70 are strictly greater than 50.
• The value 50 itself does not satisfy the >50 condition.
• Only 55 and 70 are strictly greater than 50.
• The value 50 itself does not satisfy the >50 condition.
వివరణ:
Question 96
ప్రశ్న 96
Assertion (A): A USB flash drive can retain stored files after being unplugged from the computer.
Reason (R): Flash memory is non-volatile storage.
Choose the correct answer.
Reason (R): Flash memory is non-volatile storage.
Choose the correct answer.
Explanation:
• Non-volatile memory retains data without continuous electrical power.
• USB flash drives use non-volatile flash storage.
• The Reason directly explains why unplugging the drive does not normally erase its files.
• USB flash drives use non-volatile flash storage.
• The Reason directly explains why unplugging the drive does not normally erase its files.
వివరణ:
Question 97
ప్రశ్న 97
Match List I with List II:
List I
(a) Atomicity
(b) Consistency
(c) Isolation
(d) Durability
List II
1. All-or-nothing transaction behavior
2. Preservation of defined integrity rules
3. Controlled interaction among concurrent transactions
4. Committed changes survive subsequent failure
Choose the correct matching code.
List I
(a) Atomicity
(b) Consistency
(c) Isolation
(d) Durability
List II
1. All-or-nothing transaction behavior
2. Preservation of defined integrity rules
3. Controlled interaction among concurrent transactions
4. Committed changes survive subsequent failure
Choose the correct matching code.
Explanation:
• ACID properties describe transaction reliability from four different perspectives.
• Atomicity handles partial failure, isolation handles concurrency, and durability protects committed results.
• Consistency requires transactions to preserve the database's defined valid-state rules.
• Atomicity handles partial failure, isolation handles concurrency, and durability protects committed results.
• Consistency requires transactions to preserve the database's defined valid-state rules.
వివరణ:
Question 98
ప్రశ్న 98
Consider the following statements about Access action queries:
1. An Update query changes values in existing records.
2. An Append query adds records to an existing table.
3. A Delete query removes qualifying records.
4. A Select query is always destructive and permanently changes every row it displays.
Which statements are correct?
1. An Update query changes values in existing records.
2. An Append query adds records to an existing table.
3. A Delete query removes qualifying records.
4. A Select query is always destructive and permanently changes every row it displays.
Which statements are correct?
Explanation:
• Update, Append and Delete are action-query categories that modify stored data.
• A Select query retrieves data and is not inherently destructive.
• Action queries should be checked carefully because they may affect many records.
• A Select query retrieves data and is not inherently destructive.
• Action queries should be checked carefully because they may affect many records.
వివరణ:
Question 99
ప్రశ్న 99
Which Excel feature changes cell formatting automatically when values meet defined rules, such as highlighting scores below 40?
Explanation:
• Conditional Formatting applies formatting based on cell values or formulas.
• It can highlight exceptions, thresholds, duplicates and other patterns.
• The feature changes presentation, not the underlying value itself.
• It can highlight exceptions, thresholds, duplicates and other patterns.
• The feature changes presentation, not the underlying value itself.
వివరణ:
Question 100
ప్రశ్న 100
Which CPU register normally holds the address of the next instruction to be fetched?
Explanation:
• The Program Counter holds the address of the next instruction in the normal instruction stream.
• Branch, jump and interrupt operations can change the Program Counter.
• The Instruction Register instead holds the instruction currently being decoded or executed.
• Branch, jump and interrupt operations can change the Program Counter.
• The Instruction Register instead holds the instruction currently being decoded or executed.
వివరణ:
Question 101
ప్రశ్న 101
Which device can provide temporary battery-backed power so that a computer can continue briefly or shut down safely during a mains power failure?
Explanation:
• A UPS supplies backup electrical power for a limited period during an outage.
• It can help prevent abrupt shutdown and data loss during short power interruptions.
• A KVM switch shares console peripherals, while a NIC provides network connectivity.
• It can help prevent abrupt shutdown and data loss during short power interruptions.
• A KVM switch shares console peripherals, while a NIC provides network connectivity.
వివరణ:
Question 102
ప్రశ్న 102
A presentation file is very large because it contains supported embedded audio and video. Which feature can reduce the media size?
Explanation:
• Compress Media can reduce the size of supported embedded audio/video content.
• Compression can lower file size at the cost of possible quality reduction.
• Slide organization features do not compress media data.
• Compression can lower file size at the cost of possible quality reduction.
• Slide organization features do not compress media data.
వివరణ:
Question 103
ప్రశ్న 103
Match List I with List II:
List I
(a) Primary key
(b) Foreign key
(c) Composite key
(d) View
List II
1. Uniquely identifies rows and does not permit Null key values
2. References a key in a related table
3. Uses more than one attribute together as the key
4. Presents query-derived data as a virtual table
Choose the correct matching code.
List I
(a) Primary key
(b) Foreign key
(c) Composite key
(d) View
List II
1. Uniquely identifies rows and does not permit Null key values
2. References a key in a related table
3. Uses more than one attribute together as the key
4. Presents query-derived data as a virtual table
Choose the correct matching code.
Explanation:
• Primary, foreign and composite keys have distinct structural roles.
• A view is not a key; it is a query-derived virtual relation.
• Correct identification of these concepts is fundamental to relational design.
• A view is not a key; it is a query-derived virtual relation.
• Correct identification of these concepts is fundamental to relational design.
వివరణ:
Question 104
ప్రశ్న 104
Which description correctly identifies the operation of an application-proxy gateway?
Explanation:
• An application-proxy gateway mediates communications rather than simply forwarding packets transparently.
• It can understand supported application protocols and apply higher-level policy.
• This deeper processing can require more resources than simple packet filtering.
• It can understand supported application protocols and apply higher-level policy.
• This deeper processing can require more resources than simple packet filtering.
వివరణ:
Question 105
ప్రశ్న 105
A document already uses Heading 1, Heading 2 and Heading 3 correctly. Which feature can automatically list those headings with page numbers?
Explanation:
• An automatic Table of Contents can build entries from heading levels.
• It can be updated after pagination or headings change.
• Mail Merge and WordArt serve unrelated purposes.
• It can be updated after pagination or headings change.
• Mail Merge and WordArt serve unrelated purposes.
వివరణ:
Question 106
ప్రశ్న 106
Which PowerPoint feature provides centralized control over recurring design elements such as common fonts, logos and placeholder arrangements used by many slides?
Explanation:
• Slide Master controls common presentation-wide design and layout elements.
• Changes to the master or its layouts can propagate to associated slides.
• Presenter View and Rehearse Timings are delivery tools rather than centralized design controls.
• Changes to the master or its layouts can propagate to associated slides.
• Presenter View and Rehearse Timings are delivery tools rather than centralized design controls.
వివరణ:
Question 107
ప్రశ్న 107
Which connector normally supplies the main motherboard power from a standard ATX desktop power supply?
Explanation:
• The 24-pin ATX connector is the main power connection for a modern ATX motherboard.
• A separate CPU power connector is also normally required near the processor socket.
• Ethernet and display connectors do not provide the motherboard's main DC power.
• A separate CPU power connector is also normally required near the processor socket.
• Ethernet and display connectors do not provide the motherboard's main DC power.
వివరణ:
Question 108
ప్రశ్న 108
Cell E3 contains the formula =$B3+C$2. It is copied to G6. What formula appears in G6?
Explanation:
• The copy moves two columns right and three rows down.
• $B3 keeps column B fixed while row 3 becomes 6; C$2 keeps row 2 fixed while column C becomes E.
• Therefore the copied formula is =$B6+E$2.
• $B3 keeps column B fixed while row 3 becomes 6; C$2 keeps row 2 fixed while column C becomes E.
• Therefore the copied formula is =$B6+E$2.
వివరణ:
Question 109
ప్రశ్న 109
Which statement about multi-core processors is INCORRECT?
Which statement is INCORRECT?
Which statement is INCORRECT?
Explanation:
• Performance scaling depends on the software workload, synchronization, memory system and other bottlenecks.
• Parallel-capable software can use multiple cores effectively, but serial portions limit scaling.
• Therefore an exact universal twofold gain from two cores is not guaranteed.
• Parallel-capable software can use multiple cores effectively, but serial portions limit scaling.
• Therefore an exact universal twofold gain from two cores is not guaranteed.
వివరణ:
Question 110
ప్రశ్న 110
What is the primary purpose of thermal interface material between a CPU heat spreader and its cooler?
Explanation:
• Thermal interface material improves thermal contact between mating surfaces.
• It reduces insulating air gaps that would otherwise impede heat flow.
• It is not used for electrical isolation, instruction processing or data storage.
• It reduces insulating air gaps that would otherwise impede heat flow.
• It is not used for electrical isolation, instruction processing or data storage.
వివరణ:
Question 111
ప్రశ్న 111
Which statement correctly distinguishes the Internet from an organizational intranet?
Explanation:
• The Internet provides global interconnection among many independently operated networks.
• An intranet uses network technologies for restricted organizational access.
• An intranet may have controlled Internet connectivity while remaining private.
• An intranet uses network technologies for restricted organizational access.
• An intranet may have controlled Internet connectivity while remaining private.
వివరణ:
Question 112
ప్రశ్న 112
Which Windows command displays detailed adapter configuration including IP addresses, physical addresses, DHCP status and configured DNS servers?
Explanation:
• ipconfig /all displays detailed TCP/IP configuration for Windows adapters.
• The output can include physical addresses, DHCP details, gateways and DNS servers.
• DIR, ATTRIB and SFC serve unrelated file or system-integrity purposes.
• The output can include physical addresses, DHCP details, gateways and DNS servers.
• DIR, ATTRIB and SFC serve unrelated file or system-integrity purposes.
వివరణ:
Question 113
ప్రశ్న 113
A PC that worked correctly before a RAM upgrade now emits a memory-related POST error and does not boot. What is the best first isolation method?
Explanation:
• The fault appeared immediately after the memory change, so RAM installation and compatibility should be tested first.
• One-module-at-a-time testing can identify a faulty DIMM or slot.
• Disk formatting and network changes do not address a pre-boot memory POST failure.
• One-module-at-a-time testing can identify a faulty DIMM or slot.
• Disk formatting and network changes do not address a pre-boot memory POST failure.
వివరణ:
Question 114
ప్రశ్న 114
Consider the following statements about POST and early PC startup:
1. POST is performed during the firmware-controlled startup stage before the operating system is loaded.
2. POST can help detect certain hardware problems such as memory or keyboard-related faults.
3. POST begins only after a user successfully signs in to Windows.
4. Firmware can continue from POST-related initialization toward selecting a boot entry.
Which statements are correct?
1. POST is performed during the firmware-controlled startup stage before the operating system is loaded.
2. POST can help detect certain hardware problems such as memory or keyboard-related faults.
3. POST begins only after a user successfully signs in to Windows.
4. Firmware can continue from POST-related initialization toward selecting a boot entry.
Which statements are correct?
Explanation:
• Statements 1, 2 and 4 describe firmware-controlled startup correctly.
• POST occurs before the operating system and user sign-in stages.
• A failure reported during POST should first be investigated at the hardware or firmware level.
• POST occurs before the operating system and user sign-in stages.
• A failure reported during POST should first be investigated at the hardware or firmware level.
వివరణ:
Question 115
ప్రశ్న 115
Which HDD timing component refers to the time needed to position the read/write head over the required track?
Explanation:
• Seek time measures mechanical movement of the drive head to the target track.
• Rotational latency is the wait for the required sector to rotate under the head.
• Both are mechanical delays specific to traditional rotating disks.
• Rotational latency is the wait for the required sector to rotate under the head.
• Both are mechanical delays specific to traditional rotating disks.
వివరణ:
Question 116
ప్రశ్న 116
A formula cell B10 should equal exactly 500 by changing the input cell B4. Which Excel tool is designed to solve this one-variable target problem?
Explanation:
• Goal Seek adjusts one input cell until a formula cell reaches a specified target value.
• B10 is the Set cell, 500 is the target, and B4 is the changing cell.
• It is a what-if analysis tool rather than an input-validation feature.
• B10 is the Set cell, 500 is the target, and B4 is the changing cell.
• It is a what-if analysis tool rather than an input-validation feature.
వివరణ:
Question 117
ప్రశ్న 117
Consider the following statements about digital cameras and webcams:
1. They capture visual information using an image sensor.
2. A webcam can function as an input device for video communication.
3. Both are primarily output devices because they display images.
4. Captured image data can be stored or transmitted digitally.
Which statements are correct?
1. They capture visual information using an image sensor.
2. A webcam can function as an input device for video communication.
3. Both are primarily output devices because they display images.
4. Captured image data can be stored or transmitted digitally.
Which statements are correct?
Explanation:
• Cameras and webcams capture visual input through an electronic image sensor.
• Their digital output can be stored, processed or transmitted.
• They are input devices even though the captured images may later be displayed on a monitor.
• Their digital output can be stored, processed or transmitted.
• They are input devices even though the captured images may later be displayed on a monitor.
వివరణ:
Question 118
ప్రశ్న 118
Assertion (A): A process that requests disk input may move from Running to Waiting/Blocked.
Reason (R): The process cannot continue until the requested I/O event completes.
Choose the correct answer.
Reason (R): The process cannot continue until the requested I/O event completes.
Choose the correct answer.
Explanation:
• I/O-dependent work may require a process to wait for a device event.
• The scheduler can use the CPU for another ready process during that wait.
• The Reason directly explains the Running-to-Blocked transition.
• The scheduler can use the CPU for another ready process during that wait.
• The Reason directly explains the Running-to-Blocked transition.
వివరణ:
Question 119
ప్రశ్న 119
Assertion (A): Loss of Internet connectivity does not necessarily prevent two correctly configured computers on the same functioning LAN from communicating with each other.
Reason (R): Local LAN communication between same-subnet hosts does not inherently require traffic to pass through an Internet service provider.
Choose the correct answer.
Reason (R): Local LAN communication between same-subnet hosts does not inherently require traffic to pass through an Internet service provider.
Choose the correct answer.
Explanation:
• Same-subnet hosts can exchange frames and IP packets locally through the LAN.
• The ISP is needed for reaching external Internet destinations, not for every local communication.
• The Reason directly explains the Assertion.
• The ISP is needed for reaching external Internet destinations, not for every local communication.
• The Reason directly explains the Assertion.
వివరణ:
Question 120
ప్రశ్న 120
Two transactions each hold a lock needed by the other and neither can proceed. What is this condition called?
Explanation:
• Deadlock arises when transactions form a circular wait for resources.
• The DBMS may detect the cycle and abort one participant to restore progress.
• It is a concurrency-control problem rather than an indexing operation.
• The DBMS may detect the cycle and abort one participant to restore progress.
• It is a concurrency-control problem rather than an indexing operation.
వివరణ:
Question 121
ప్రశ్న 121
Consider the following statements about the von Neumann architecture:
1. Instructions and data share the same memory system in the classic von Neumann model.
2. A shared path for instructions and data can contribute to the von Neumann bottleneck.
3. The architecture requires separate physical memories for instructions and data.
4. The CPU repeatedly fetches instructions for execution from memory.
Which statements are correct?
1. Instructions and data share the same memory system in the classic von Neumann model.
2. A shared path for instructions and data can contribute to the von Neumann bottleneck.
3. The architecture requires separate physical memories for instructions and data.
4. The CPU repeatedly fetches instructions for execution from memory.
Which statements are correct?
Explanation:
• Classic von Neumann systems use a common memory space for instructions and data.
• Sharing the memory path can limit throughput when instruction and data transfers compete.
• Separate instruction and data memories are characteristic of Harvard-style organization, not a requirement of von Neumann architecture.
• Sharing the memory path can limit throughput when instruction and data transfers compete.
• Separate instruction and data memories are characteristic of Harvard-style organization, not a requirement of von Neumann architecture.
వివరణ:
Question 122
ప్రశ్న 122
Match List I with List II:
List I
(a) Device Manager
(b) Event Viewer
(c) Disk Management
(d) Task Scheduler
List II
1. Manages hardware devices and drivers
2. Examines recorded system/application/security events
3. Manages disks, partitions and volumes
4. Runs tasks according to schedules or triggers
Choose the correct matching code.
List I
(a) Device Manager
(b) Event Viewer
(c) Disk Management
(d) Task Scheduler
List II
1. Manages hardware devices and drivers
2. Examines recorded system/application/security events
3. Manages disks, partitions and volumes
4. Runs tasks according to schedules or triggers
Choose the correct matching code.
Explanation:
• Device Manager, Event Viewer, Disk Management and Task Scheduler serve different administrative purposes.
• The tools respectively address devices, logs, storage layout and automated tasks.
• Correct tool selection is central to efficient Windows troubleshooting.
• The tools respectively address devices, logs, storage layout and automated tasks.
• Correct tool selection is central to efficient Windows troubleshooting.
వివరణ:
Question 123
ప్రశ్న 123
Match List I with List II:
List I
(a) CPU
(b) RAM
(c) SSD
(d) NIC
List II
1. Executes instructions
2. Provides volatile working storage
3. Provides non-volatile secondary storage
4. Provides a host interface to a network
Choose the correct matching code.
List I
(a) CPU
(b) RAM
(c) SSD
(d) NIC
List II
1. Executes instructions
2. Provides volatile working storage
3. Provides non-volatile secondary storage
4. Provides a host interface to a network
Choose the correct matching code.
Explanation:
• The CPU executes instructions, RAM supplies volatile working memory, and SSDs store persistent data.
• A NIC connects the computer to a network medium or link.
• These four components belong to different functional units of a computer system.
• A NIC connects the computer to a network medium or link.
• These four components belong to different functional units of a computer system.
వివరణ:
Question 124
ప్రశ్న 124
Which technology is traditionally associated with reading specially designed characters printed in magnetic ink on banking documents?
Explanation:
• MICR stands for Magnetic Ink Character Recognition.
• It reads characters printed using magnetically detectable ink or toner.
• This technology has traditionally been used for cheque-processing applications.
• It reads characters printed using magnetically detectable ink or toner.
• This technology has traditionally been used for cheque-processing applications.
వివరణ:
Question 125
ప్రశ్న 125
Which statement correctly compares an inkjet printer with a laser printer?
Explanation:
• Inkjet printers use liquid ink delivered through print-head nozzles.
• Laser printers use an electrophotographic process with toner and a fuser.
• Both are non-impact printers but their imaging and consumable systems differ.
• Laser printers use an electrophotographic process with toner and a fuser.
• Both are non-impact printers but their imaging and consumable systems differ.
వివరణ:
Question 126
ప్రశ్న 126
Which comparison between authentication and authorization is technically correct?
Explanation:
• Authentication answers who the entity is.
• Authorization answers what the authenticated entity may access or perform.
• A user can be authenticated successfully yet still be denied a restricted resource.
• Authorization answers what the authenticated entity may access or perform.
• A user can be authenticated successfully yet still be denied a restricted resource.
వివరణ:
Question 127
ప్రశ్న 127
Which Word feature records insertions, deletions and other edits so that they can later be reviewed and accepted or rejected?
Explanation:
• Track Changes records revisions while document editing occurs.
• Reviewers can inspect and accept or reject tracked changes.
• Comments and revision tracking are review tools rather than mail-merge or formatting-copy functions.
• Reviewers can inspect and accept or reject tracked changes.
• Comments and revision tracking are review tools rather than mail-merge or formatting-copy functions.
వివరణ:
Question 128
ప్రశ్న 128
Match List I with List II:
List I
(a) Laser printer
(b) Inkjet printer
(c) Dot-matrix printer
(d) Plotter
List II
1. Uses toner and a fuser
2. Ejects tiny droplets of ink through print nozzles
3. Impact printer using pins against an inked ribbon
4. Produces large technical drawings or graphics
Choose the correct matching code.
List I
(a) Laser printer
(b) Inkjet printer
(c) Dot-matrix printer
(d) Plotter
List II
1. Uses toner and a fuser
2. Ejects tiny droplets of ink through print nozzles
3. Impact printer using pins against an inked ribbon
4. Produces large technical drawings or graphics
Choose the correct matching code.
Explanation:
• Laser, inkjet and dot-matrix printers use fundamentally different printing mechanisms.
• Plotters are associated with large-format technical output.
• Recognizing printer mechanisms helps diagnose paper, toner, ink and impact-related faults.
• Plotters are associated with large-format technical output.
• Recognizing printer mechanisms helps diagnose paper, toner, ink and impact-related faults.
వివరణ:
Question 129
ప్రశ్న 129
Which statement best describes Direct Memory Access (DMA)?
Explanation:
• DMA offloads bulk data movement from the CPU after the transfer has been configured.
• The CPU is still involved in setup and completion handling, but not necessarily in every transferred word or byte.
• DMA is a data-transfer mechanism rather than a memory technology.
• The CPU is still involved in setup and completion handling, but not necessarily in every transferred word or byte.
• DMA is a data-transfer mechanism rather than a memory technology.
వివరణ:
Question 130
ప్రశ్న 130
Which comparison correctly places an RDBMS within the broader DBMS category?
Explanation:
• DBMS is the broad category of software used to manage databases.
• An RDBMS implements the relational model using relations and related integrity concepts.
• Therefore every RDBMS is a DBMS, but not every DBMS must be relational.
• An RDBMS implements the relational model using relations and related integrity concepts.
• Therefore every RDBMS is a DBMS, but not every DBMS must be relational.
వివరణ:
Question 131
ప్రశ్న 131
Consider the following statements about UEFI and legacy BIOS concepts:
1. UEFI is a modern firmware interface used for hardware initialization and boot management.
2. Firmware boot order or boot entries influence which boot target is attempted.
3. UEFI begins only after the operating system kernel has fully loaded.
4. UEFI systems can support Secure Boot.
Which statements are correct?
1. UEFI is a modern firmware interface used for hardware initialization and boot management.
2. Firmware boot order or boot entries influence which boot target is attempted.
3. UEFI begins only after the operating system kernel has fully loaded.
4. UEFI systems can support Secure Boot.
Which statements are correct?
Explanation:
• UEFI operates before the operating system and participates in boot selection.
• Secure Boot is a UEFI security capability that can verify trusted boot components.
• The claim that UEFI begins after the kernel is loaded reverses the actual startup order.
• Secure Boot is a UEFI security capability that can verify trusted boot components.
• The claim that UEFI begins after the kernel is loaded reverses the actual startup order.
వివరణ:
Question 132
ప్రశ్న 132
A desktop repeatedly loses its correct date and time after being disconnected from AC power for several hours. Which component is the most likely first suspect?
Explanation:
• The motherboard coin-cell battery maintains the real-time clock while external power is absent.
• A weak battery can cause the clock and some firmware settings to reset.
• CPU cache, NICs and printer components do not maintain the motherboard RTC.
• A weak battery can cause the clock and some firmware settings to reset.
• CPU cache, NICs and printer components do not maintain the motherboard RTC.
వివరణ:
Question 133
ప్రశ్న 133
Assertion (A): A foreign key can help represent a relationship between two relational tables.
Reason (R): It contains values that reference a key in another table or the same table, subject to the database design.
Choose the correct answer.
Reason (R): It contains values that reference a key in another table or the same table, subject to the database design.
Choose the correct answer.
Explanation:
• Foreign keys provide a formal way to represent relationships.
• Referential integrity can ensure that referenced values correspond to valid parent rows.
• The Reason directly explains the role of a foreign key.
• Referential integrity can ensure that referenced values correspond to valid parent rows.
• The Reason directly explains the role of a foreign key.
వివరణ:
Question 134
ప్రశ్న 134
Which topology uses a central switch or hub to which each endpoint has an individual link?
Explanation:
• A star topology connects endpoints to a central device.
• Failure of one endpoint cable usually affects only that endpoint, while failure of the central device can affect the entire segment.
• Bus, ring and mesh use different connection structures.
• Failure of one endpoint cable usually affects only that endpoint, while failure of the central device can affect the entire segment.
• Bus, ring and mesh use different connection structures.
వివరణ:
Question 135
ప్రశ్న 135
Match List I with List II:
List I
(a) AutoNumber
(b) Short Text
(c) Currency
(d) Yes/No
List II
1. Automatically generated unique value for new records
2. Stores short alphanumeric data
3. Stores monetary values with fixed decimal precision
4. Stores Boolean values
Choose the correct matching code.
List I
(a) AutoNumber
(b) Short Text
(c) Currency
(d) Yes/No
List II
1. Automatically generated unique value for new records
2. Stores short alphanumeric data
3. Stores monetary values with fixed decimal precision
4. Stores Boolean values
Choose the correct matching code.
Explanation:
• Access data types should be chosen according to the meaning and operations required for each field.
• AutoNumber is useful for generated identifiers, while Currency and Yes/No have specialized storage semantics.
• Short Text is appropriate for compact alphanumeric values.
• AutoNumber is useful for generated identifiers, while Currency and Yes/No have specialized storage semantics.
• Short Text is appropriate for compact alphanumeric values.
వివరణ:
Question 136
ప్రశ్న 136
Which statement correctly distinguishes a transition from an animation in PowerPoint?
Explanation:
• Transitions operate at the slide-to-slide level.
• Animations are applied to objects such as text, pictures and shapes within a slide.
• The distinction is a common PowerPoint exam concept.
• Animations are applied to objects such as text, pictures and shapes within a slide.
• The distinction is a common PowerPoint exam concept.
వివరణ:
Question 137
ప్రశ్న 137
Which fields are commonly usable by a basic IP packet-filter rule?
Explanation:
• Packet filters commonly use network and transport header fields.
• Source/destination addresses, protocol numbers and TCP/UDP ports are typical rule criteria.
• Application-document and hardware-performance properties are unrelated to packet filtering.
• Source/destination addresses, protocol numbers and TCP/UDP ports are typical rule criteria.
• Application-document and hardware-performance properties are unrelated to packet filtering.
వివరణ:
Question 138
ప్రశ్న 138
What value is returned by the Excel formula =ROUND(17.564,1)?
Explanation:
• ROUND with 1 as the second argument rounds to one decimal place.
• The hundredths digit is 6, so 17.5 rounds up to 17.6.
• The result is expressed to one decimal place.
• The hundredths digit is 6, so 17.5 rounds up to 17.6.
• The result is expressed to one decimal place.
వివరణ:
Question 139
ప్రశ్న 139
Which Windows recovery feature is intended primarily to revert selected system files, registry settings, drivers and configuration to an earlier restore point?
Explanation:
• System Restore rolls system configuration back to a saved restore point.
• It is useful after problematic drivers, updates or configuration changes.
• It is not a substitute for independent backups of personal data.
• It is useful after problematic drivers, updates or configuration changes.
• It is not a substitute for independent backups of personal data.
వివరణ:
Question 140
ప్రశ్న 140
Which command normally makes a successful transaction's changes permanent?
Explanation:
• COMMIT completes the transaction and makes its changes durable according to the DBMS.
• ROLLBACK cancels applicable uncommitted changes.
• SELECT retrieves data and REVOKE concerns privileges.
• ROLLBACK cancels applicable uncommitted changes.
• SELECT retrieves data and REVOKE concerns privileges.
వివరణ:
Question 141
ప్రశ్న 141
Match List I with List II:
List I
(a) CPU register
(b) L1 cache
(c) Main RAM
(d) SSD
List II
1. Fastest very small storage directly used by CPU instructions
2. Small high-speed cache close to processor execution units
3. Volatile main working memory
4. Non-volatile secondary storage
Choose the correct matching code.
List I
(a) CPU register
(b) L1 cache
(c) Main RAM
(d) SSD
List II
1. Fastest very small storage directly used by CPU instructions
2. Small high-speed cache close to processor execution units
3. Volatile main working memory
4. Non-volatile secondary storage
Choose the correct matching code.
Explanation:
• Registers are closest to CPU execution, followed by cache, then main memory in the usual hierarchy.
• RAM is volatile working memory, while SSD storage is non-volatile secondary storage.
• The hierarchy trades speed, capacity and cost at each level.
• RAM is volatile working memory, while SSD storage is non-volatile secondary storage.
• The hierarchy trades speed, capacity and cost at each level.
వివరణ:
Question 142
ప్రశ్న 142
A multiple-choice answer sheet contains bubbles that students fill with a pencil. Which technology is most appropriate for detecting the marked positions?
Explanation:
• OMR stands for Optical Mark Recognition and detects predefined marked locations.
• It is commonly used for objective answer sheets and survey forms.
• OCR is intended for character recognition rather than simply detecting marks.
• It is commonly used for objective answer sheets and survey forms.
• OCR is intended for character recognition rather than simply detecting marks.
వివరణ:
Question 143
ప్రశ్న 143
Which statement best distinguishes a program from a process?
Explanation:
• A program is a stored set of instructions.
• A process is a running instance that has execution state, memory and other resources.
• Multiple processes can execute instances of the same program independently.
• A process is a running instance that has execution state, memory and other resources.
• Multiple processes can execute instances of the same program independently.
వివరణ:
Question 144
ప్రశ్న 144
What does a page fault indicate in a virtual-memory system?
Explanation:
• A page fault is generated when a process references a page that cannot immediately be satisfied from the current memory mapping.
• The operating system may load the page from backing storage or handle the fault in another appropriate way.
• Page faults are part of virtual-memory management and do not automatically mean hardware failure.
• The operating system may load the page from backing storage or handle the fault in another appropriate way.
• Page faults are part of virtual-memory management and do not automatically mean hardware failure.
వివరణ:
Question 145
ప్రశ్న 145
Which service normally supplies an automatically configured IPv4 host with an address, subnet mask, default gateway and other options?
Explanation:
• DHCP provides dynamic host-configuration information.
• It can distribute IP addresses, masks, gateways and DNS-server options.
• DNS resolves names, while SMTP and HTTP are application protocols.
• It can distribute IP addresses, masks, gateways and DNS-server options.
• DNS resolves names, while SMTP and HTTP are application protocols.
వివరణ:
Question 146
ప్రశ్న 146
Which Word feature is specifically intended to limit the kinds of editing users can perform in a document?
Explanation:
• Restrict Editing can limit document changes according to configured protection settings.
• It can allow selected types of editing or exceptions while restricting other modifications.
• It is not a substitute for operating-system file permissions but provides document-level editing control.
• It can allow selected types of editing or exceptions while restricting other modifications.
• It is not a substitute for operating-system file permissions but provides document-level editing control.
వివరణ:
Question 147
ప్రశ్న 147
Which statement best distinguishes a basic stateless packet filter from a stateful firewall?
Explanation:
• Stateless filtering treats packets individually according to configured rules.
• Stateful inspection tracks active connections and can recognize related return traffic.
• Both may use header information such as addresses, protocols and ports.
• Stateful inspection tracks active connections and can recognize related return traffic.
• Both may use header information such as addresses, protocols and ports.
వివరణ:
Question 148
ప్రశ్న 148
Match List I with List II:
List I
(a) Arithmetic Logic Unit
(b) Control Unit
(c) Clock
(d) System bus
List II
1. Coordinates instruction execution and control signals
2. Performs arithmetic and logical operations
3. Provides timing pulses used to synchronize processor activity
4. Carries information among major computer components
Choose the correct matching code.
List I
(a) Arithmetic Logic Unit
(b) Control Unit
(c) Clock
(d) System bus
List II
1. Coordinates instruction execution and control signals
2. Performs arithmetic and logical operations
3. Provides timing pulses used to synchronize processor activity
4. Carries information among major computer components
Choose the correct matching code.
Explanation:
• The ALU performs arithmetic and logic, while the Control Unit coordinates execution.
• The clock provides timing, and buses carry addresses, data or control information.
• Distinguishing computation, control, timing and communication functions is fundamental to CPU architecture.
• The clock provides timing, and buses carry addresses, data or control information.
• Distinguishing computation, control, timing and communication functions is fundamental to CPU architecture.
వివరణ:
Question 149
ప్రశ్న 149
Consider the following authentication-factor statements:
1. A password is a knowledge factor.
2. A hardware token is a possession factor.
3. A fingerprint is an inherence/biometric factor.
4. A password and a PIN necessarily constitute two different factor categories.
Which statements are correct?
1. A password is a knowledge factor.
2. A hardware token is a possession factor.
3. A fingerprint is an inherence/biometric factor.
4. A password and a PIN necessarily constitute two different factor categories.
Which statements are correct?
Explanation:
• Passwords and PINs are both knowledge factors.
• Hardware tokens represent possession, and fingerprints represent inherence.
• True multi-factor authentication uses independently verified factors from different categories.
• Hardware tokens represent possession, and fingerprints represent inherence.
• True multi-factor authentication uses independently verified factors from different categories.
వివరణ:
Question 150
ప్రశ్న 150
Which statement best describes an ordinary non-materialized relational database view?
Explanation:
• A conventional view stores a query definition rather than an independent full copy of source rows.
• Views can simplify complex queries or expose selected data.
• Materialized views are a different concept because they physically store derived results.
• Views can simplify complex queries or expose selected data.
• Materialized views are a different concept because they physically store derived results.
వివరణ:
Question 151
ప్రశ్న 151
Which statement correctly compares a SATA SSD with a PCIe/NVMe SSD?
Explanation:
• Both SATA and NVMe SSDs normally use non-volatile solid-state media.
• SATA SSDs use the SATA/AHCI path, while NVMe is designed around PCI Express.
• The interface difference can create major bandwidth and queueing-performance differences.
• SATA SSDs use the SATA/AHCI path, while NVMe is designed around PCI Express.
• The interface difference can create major bandwidth and queueing-performance differences.
వివరణ:
Question 152
ప్రశ్న 152
When a CPU requests a memory block and that block is already present in the cache level being checked, what is the event called?
Explanation:
• A cache hit means the requested item is found in the cache.
• A cache miss means the item must be obtained from a lower memory level.
• Cache-hit rate strongly influences average memory-access performance.
• A cache miss means the item must be obtained from a lower memory level.
• Cache-hit rate strongly influences average memory-access performance.
వివరణ:
Question 153
ప్రశ్న 153
When a low-priority process waits indefinitely because higher-priority work keeps receiving the CPU or a required resource, what is the problem called?
Explanation:
• Starvation occurs when a task is postponed indefinitely despite the system as a whole continuing to make progress.
• Priority scheduling without mitigation can produce starvation.
• Aging is one technique that can reduce starvation by gradually increasing waiting tasks' priority.
• Priority scheduling without mitigation can produce starvation.
• Aging is one technique that can reduce starvation by gradually increasing waiting tasks' priority.
వివరణ:
Question 154
ప్రశ్న 154
Which feature is intended to capture spoken narration and slide timings for a self-running or replayable presentation?
Explanation:
• Record Slide Show can capture narration and timing information.
• The recording can be played back with the presentation.
• Reuse Slides imports content, while Selection Pane manages slide objects.
• The recording can be played back with the presentation.
• Reuse Slides imports content, while Selection Pane manages slide objects.
వివరణ:
Question 155
ప్రశ్న 155
A newly assembled PC shows no fan movement, LEDs or other signs of power. Which check is most appropriate before replacing the motherboard?
Explanation:
• A completely dead PC should first be checked for basic power-delivery and front-panel connection faults.
• The motherboard typically needs both its main ATX connection and processor power connection.
• Operating-system or application troubleshooting is impossible before the system can power on.
• The motherboard typically needs both its main ATX connection and processor power connection.
• Operating-system or application troubleshooting is impossible before the system can power on.
వివరణ:
Question 156
ప్రశ్న 156
Which technology converts printed or typed characters in a scanned image into machine-readable text?
Explanation:
• OCR stands for Optical Character Recognition.
• It analyzes character shapes in an image and converts them into encoded text.
• OMR detects marked positions, while MICR reads specially printed magnetic-ink characters.
• It analyzes character shapes in an image and converts them into encoded text.
• OMR detects marked positions, while MICR reads specially printed magnetic-ink characters.
వివరణ:
Question 157
ప్రశ్న 157
A motherboard designed only for DDR4 DIMMs cannot normally accept a DDR5 DIMM. What is the primary reason?
Explanation:
• Different DDR generations use incompatible electrical signaling and physical keying.
• A module must match the memory generation supported by the motherboard and processor platform.
• Operating-system software cannot make an electrically incompatible DIMM slot support another DDR generation.
• A module must match the memory generation supported by the motherboard and processor platform.
• Operating-system software cannot make an electrically incompatible DIMM slot support another DDR generation.
వివరణ:
Question 158
ప్రశ్న 158
Assertion (A): Using RAID redundancy does not eliminate the need for independent backups.
Reason (R): RAID can improve availability after certain drive failures but does not inherently protect against deletion, ransomware, theft, or loss of the entire array.
Choose the correct answer.
Reason (R): RAID can improve availability after certain drive failures but does not inherently protect against deletion, ransomware, theft, or loss of the entire array.
Choose the correct answer.
Explanation:
• RAID redundancy addresses selected disk-failure scenarios, not every data-loss scenario.
• Independent backups provide separate recovery copies and can preserve historical versions.
• The Reason directly explains why RAID should not be treated as a backup replacement.
• Independent backups provide separate recovery copies and can preserve historical versions.
• The Reason directly explains why RAID should not be treated as a backup replacement.
వివరణ:
Question 159
ప్రశ్న 159
Match List I with List II:
List I
(a) Tuple
(b) Attribute
(c) Relation
(d) Domain
List II
1. A row in a relation
2. A column/property in a relation
3. A table-like set of tuples
4. Permitted set or type of values for an attribute
Choose the correct matching code.
List I
(a) Tuple
(b) Attribute
(c) Relation
(d) Domain
List II
1. A row in a relation
2. A column/property in a relation
3. A table-like set of tuples
4. Permitted set or type of values for an attribute
Choose the correct matching code.
Explanation:
• Relational terminology maps tuples to rows and attributes to columns.
• A relation is the table-like structure, while a domain constrains valid attribute values.
• These terms describe different parts of the relational model.
• A relation is the table-like structure, while a domain constrains valid attribute values.
• These terms describe different parts of the relational model.
వివరణ:
Question 160
ప్రశ్న 160
Host A is 192.168.40.10/24 and Host B is 192.168.40.220/24. Assuming normal configuration, what is true?
Explanation:
• A /24 prefix fixes the first 24 bits as the network portion.
• Both addresses belong to 192.168.40.0/24.
• Local-subnet communication can therefore use the LAN directly under normal conditions.
• Both addresses belong to 192.168.40.0/24.
• Local-subnet communication can therefore use the LAN directly under normal conditions.
వివరణ:
Question 161
ప్రశ్న 161
What is the primary purpose of User Account Control (UAC) in Windows?
Explanation:
• UAC separates ordinary user activity from elevated administrative actions.
• Elevation prompts help prevent silent execution of privileged changes.
• UAC complements rather than replaces account permissions and other security controls.
• Elevation prompts help prevent silent execution of privileged changes.
• UAC complements rather than replaces account permissions and other security controls.
వివరణ:
Question 162
ప్రశ్న 162
Match List I with List II:
List I
(a) Table
(b) Query
(c) Form
(d) Report
List II
1. Stores records and fields
2. Retrieves, filters, calculates or changes data according to defined logic
3. Provides a user-oriented interface for viewing or entering records
4. Presents data in formatted printable form
Choose the correct matching code.
List I
(a) Table
(b) Query
(c) Form
(d) Report
List II
1. Stores records and fields
2. Retrieves, filters, calculates or changes data according to defined logic
3. Provides a user-oriented interface for viewing or entering records
4. Presents data in formatted printable form
Choose the correct matching code.
Explanation:
• Tables store structured data, while queries retrieve or manipulate it.
• Forms provide user interfaces for record interaction, and reports present formatted output.
• These four object types are fundamental to Microsoft Access.
• Forms provide user interfaces for record interaction, and reports present formatted output.
• These four object types are fundamental to Microsoft Access.
వివరణ:
Question 163
ప్రశ్న 163
Consider the following statements about common network devices:
1. A NIC provides a host's physical/link interface to a network.
2. An Ethernet switch forwards frames within a LAN using MAC-address information.
3. A router forwards IP packets between different networks.
4. A traditional modem is primarily used to store database records.
Which statements are correct?
1. A NIC provides a host's physical/link interface to a network.
2. An Ethernet switch forwards frames within a LAN using MAC-address information.
3. A router forwards IP packets between different networks.
4. A traditional modem is primarily used to store database records.
Which statements are correct?
Explanation:
• NICs, switches and routers perform different networking functions.
• A modem handles communication signaling/interface conversion rather than database storage.
• The first three statements therefore correctly describe networking devices.
• A modem handles communication signaling/interface conversion rather than database storage.
• The first three statements therefore correctly describe networking devices.
వివరణ:
Question 164
ప్రశ్న 164
Match List I with List II:
List I
(a) PROM
(b) EPROM
(c) EEPROM
(d) RAM
List II
1. Programmable once after manufacture in normal use
2. Can be erased with ultraviolet light and reprogrammed
3. Can be electrically erased and reprogrammed
4. Volatile read/write working memory
Choose the correct matching code.
List I
(a) PROM
(b) EPROM
(c) EEPROM
(d) RAM
List II
1. Programmable once after manufacture in normal use
2. Can be erased with ultraviolet light and reprogrammed
3. Can be electrically erased and reprogrammed
4. Volatile read/write working memory
Choose the correct matching code.
Explanation:
• PROM, EPROM and EEPROM differ mainly in how they can be programmed or erased.
• EPROM traditionally uses ultraviolet erasure, while EEPROM can be erased electrically.
• RAM is a separate volatile read/write memory category.
• EPROM traditionally uses ultraviolet erasure, while EEPROM can be erased electrically.
• RAM is a separate volatile read/write memory category.
వివరణ:
Question 165
ప్రశ్న 165
In Excel, B2:B6 are {East,West,East,East,West}, C2:C6 are {Open,Open,Closed,Open,Closed}, and D2:D6 are {100,200,300,400,500}. What result does =SUMIFS(D2:D6,B2:B6,"East",C2:C6,"Open") produce?
Explanation:
• SUMIFS adds values only where all criteria are satisfied.
• East and Open occur together for amounts 100 and 400.
• 100+400 = 500.
• East and Open occur together for amounts 100 and 400.
• 100+400 = 500.
వివరణ:
Question 166
ప్రశ్న 166
Which action best explains the purpose of antivirus quarantine?
Explanation:
• Quarantine contains a suspicious file so it cannot operate normally.
• The item can later be removed or restored if analysis shows it was misclassified.
• Quarantine is a containment mechanism, not privilege elevation.
• The item can later be removed or restored if analysis shows it was misclassified.
• Quarantine is a containment mechanism, not privilege elevation.
వివరణ:
Question 167
ప్రశ్న 167
A transaction debits one account but the system fails before the corresponding credit is completed. Which ACID property requires the partial transaction to be undone?
Explanation:
• Atomicity treats the transaction as an indivisible unit.
• If every required step cannot complete, partial effects should be rolled back.
• Leaving only the debit would violate all-or-nothing behavior.
• If every required step cannot complete, partial effects should be rolled back.
• Leaving only the debit would violate all-or-nothing behavior.
వివరణ:
Question 168
ప్రశ్న 168
What value is returned by the Excel formula =ROUNDUP(-8.231,2)?
Explanation:
• ROUNDUP rounds away from zero to the requested number of digits.
• At two decimal places, -8.231 becomes -8.24.
• For negative numbers, away from zero means becoming more negative.
• At two decimal places, -8.231 becomes -8.24.
• For negative numbers, away from zero means becoming more negative.
వివరణ:
Question 169
ప్రశ్న 169
Which statement about a public website and an intranet website is correct?
Explanation:
• Public and private web services can both use HTML, HTTP/HTTPS and browsers.
• The difference lies primarily in reachability, access control and intended audience.
• Protocol choice alone does not determine whether a service is an intranet.
• The difference lies primarily in reachability, access control and intended audience.
• Protocol choice alone does not determine whether a service is an intranet.
వివరణ:
Question 170
ప్రశ్న 170
Which description most accurately identifies a cryptographic hash function?
Explanation:
• Cryptographic hashes map arbitrary input to a fixed-length digest.
• They are designed to make reversal and collision construction computationally difficult.
• Hashes support integrity checking but are not reversible confidentiality encryption.
• They are designed to make reversal and collision construction computationally difficult.
• Hashes support integrity checking but are not reversible confidentiality encryption.
వివరణ:
Question 171
ప్రశ్న 171
Which Access property is primarily used to guide data entry into a structured pattern such as a fixed telephone-number format?
Explanation:
• An Input Mask controls the pattern in which characters are entered.
• It is useful for consistently structured data such as phone numbers or codes.
• A Validation Rule instead tests whether the completed value satisfies a condition.
• It is useful for consistently structured data such as phone numbers or codes.
• A Validation Rule instead tests whether the completed value satisfies a condition.
వివరణ:
Question 172
ప్రశ్న 172
Which PowerPoint pane is used to review and reorder animation effects applied to objects on the current slide?
Explanation:
• The Animation Pane lists animation effects and their sequence.
• Users can adjust timing, order and effect settings from this pane.
• The Selection Pane manages object visibility/selection rather than animation sequencing.
• Users can adjust timing, order and effect settings from this pane.
• The Selection Pane manages object visibility/selection rather than animation sequencing.
వివరణ:
Question 173
ప్రశ్న 173
Which service resolves a domain name such as example.com to information including an IP address?
Explanation:
• DNS is the distributed naming system used to resolve domain names.
• Applications commonly use DNS before connecting to a host by name.
• DHCP configures hosts, while FTP transfers files.
• Applications commonly use DNS before connecting to a host by name.
• DHCP configures hosts, while FTP transfers files.
వివరణ:
Question 174
ప్రశ్న 174
An Access report groups records by District and must display a subtotal after each District's records. Where should the subtotal control normally be placed?
Explanation:
• A group footer appears once after each group's detail records.
• A subtotal placed there can aggregate values for that particular District.
• A Report Footer is more suitable for an overall report total.
• A subtotal placed there can aggregate values for that particular District.
• A Report Footer is more suitable for an overall report total.
వివరణ:
Question 175
ప్రశ్న 175
A user has Share permission Full Control to a folder but only NTFS Read permission on that folder. When accessing the folder through the share, what effective capability is expected?
Explanation:
• Network access to an NTFS folder through a share is constrained by both share and NTFS permissions.
• A broad share permission does not override a more restrictive NTFS permission.
• The resulting effective access in this scenario remains read-only.
• A broad share permission does not override a more restrictive NTFS permission.
• The resulting effective access in this scenario remains read-only.
వివరణ:
Question 176
ప్రశ్న 176
A new disk is visible in Device Manager but does not appear as a usable drive in File Explorer. Which Windows tool should be checked next?
Explanation:
• Disk Management can show disks that lack a usable partition, filesystem or drive letter.
• A new disk may need initialization, volume creation, formatting and drive-letter assignment.
• Device detection alone does not make a storage volume available in File Explorer.
• A new disk may need initialization, volume creation, formatting and drive-letter assignment.
• Device detection alone does not make a storage volume available in File Explorer.
వివరణ:
Question 177
ప్రశ్న 177
Which Excel reference remains completely unchanged when copied to another cell?
Explanation:
• A dollar sign before the column fixes the column and before the row fixes the row.
• $F$1 therefore fixes both components.
• F$1 and $F1 are mixed references, while F1 is relative.
• $F$1 therefore fixes both components.
• F$1 and $F1 are mixed references, while F1 is relative.
వివరణ:
Question 178
ప్రశ్న 178
Consider the following statements about system buses:
1. The address bus identifies memory or I/O locations involved in transfers.
2. The data bus carries the actual data values being transferred.
3. Control lines carry signals such as read, write or interrupt-related control information.
4. An address bus and a data bus always have the same width in every computer architecture.
Which statements are correct?
1. The address bus identifies memory or I/O locations involved in transfers.
2. The data bus carries the actual data values being transferred.
3. Control lines carry signals such as read, write or interrupt-related control information.
4. An address bus and a data bus always have the same width in every computer architecture.
Which statements are correct?
Explanation:
• Address, data and control buses serve different functions.
• Address-bus width and data-bus width are independent architectural design choices.
• Therefore the first three statements are correct while the universal equal-width claim is false.
• Address-bus width and data-bus width are independent architectural design choices.
• Therefore the first three statements are correct while the universal equal-width claim is false.
వివరణ:
Question 179
ప్రశ్న 179
A Windows service is configured for Automatic startup but repeatedly fails during boot. Which combination is most useful for diagnosis?
Explanation:
• Services shows startup type, current state and service dependencies.
• Event Viewer can record service-control and application/system errors.
• Combining configuration information with event logs helps identify the specific failure cause.
• Event Viewer can record service-control and application/system errors.
• Combining configuration information with event logs helps identify the specific failure cause.
వివరణ:
Question 180
ప్రశ్న 180
A cache has a 95% hit rate, a hit time of 2 ns, and an additional miss penalty of 40 ns. Using AMAT = hit time + miss rate × miss penalty, what is the average memory access time?
Explanation:
• The miss rate is 1−0.95 = 0.05.
• AMAT = 2 ns + (0.05×40 ns) = 2 ns + 2 ns = 4 ns.
• The miss penalty is added only for the fraction of accesses that miss.
• AMAT = 2 ns + (0.05×40 ns) = 2 ns + 2 ns = 4 ns.
• The miss penalty is added only for the fraction of accesses that miss.
వివరణ:
Question 181
ప్రశ్న 181
Which Word feature can replace every occurrence of a phrase and can also search for or replace specified formatting?
Explanation:
• Find and Replace can locate repeated text and substitute new text throughout a document.
• Advanced options also support searching for and replacing formatting.
• It is different from document navigation and mail-merge generation.
• Advanced options also support searching for and replacing formatting.
• It is different from document navigation and mail-merge generation.
వివరణ:
Question 182
ప్రశ్న 182
Which Access query type adds records from a source to the end of an existing table?
Explanation:
• An Append query inserts records into an existing destination table.
• Existing records remain while new qualifying records are added.
• Delete removes rows, while Select retrieves data.
• Existing records remain while new qualifying records are added.
• Delete removes rows, while Select retrieves data.
వివరణ:
Question 183
ప్రశ్న 183
A laser-printed page shows loose toner that easily rubs off the paper. Which printer subsystem is the most likely first suspect?
Explanation:
• The fuser applies heat and pressure to bond toner permanently to paper.
• If toner remains loose, insufficient fusing is a plausible cause.
• Scanning and network hardware do not perform the toner-bonding stage.
• If toner remains loose, insufficient fusing is a plausible cause.
• Scanning and network hardware do not perform the toner-bonding stage.
వివరణ:
Question 184
ప్రశ్న 184
A Windows workstation can reach a server by IP address but not by its hostname. Which area should be investigated first?
Explanation:
• Successful access by IP proves that basic IP connectivity exists.
• Failure only when using the hostname points toward name resolution.
• DNS configuration, cache and server availability are appropriate next checks.
• Failure only when using the hostname points toward name resolution.
• DNS configuration, cache and server availability are appropriate next checks.
వివరణ:
Question 185
ప్రశ్న 185
Consider the following layered-security statements:
1. A firewall can restrict network traffic according to policy.
2. Encryption can protect confidentiality of data.
3. Authentication can establish confidence in a user's identity.
4. Antivirus alone guarantees that every permitted network session is secure.
Which statements are correct?
1. A firewall can restrict network traffic according to policy.
2. Encryption can protect confidentiality of data.
3. Authentication can establish confidence in a user's identity.
4. Antivirus alone guarantees that every permitted network session is secure.
Which statements are correct?
Explanation:
• Firewalls, encryption and authentication address different security objectives.
• Antivirus is an important endpoint control but cannot guarantee complete security by itself.
• Layered security combines multiple complementary mechanisms.
• Antivirus is an important endpoint control but cannot guarantee complete security by itself.
• Layered security combines multiple complementary mechanisms.
వివరణ:
Question 186
ప్రశ్న 186
In Excel, B2:B5 contain {2,4,3,5} and C2:C5 contain {10,6,8,4}. What is returned by =SUMPRODUCT(B2:B5,C2:C5)?
Explanation:
• SUMPRODUCT multiplies corresponding values and adds the products.
• (2×10)+(4×6)+(3×8)+(5×4)=20+24+24+20.
• The final total is 88.
• (2×10)+(4×6)+(3×8)+(5×4)=20+24+24+20.
• The final total is 88.
వివరణ:
Question 187
ప్రశ్న 187
Which sequence best represents the simplified instruction cycle?
Explanation:
• The processor must first fetch an instruction before it can decode and execute it.
• Some instructions then write a result to a register or memory during a write-back/store stage.
• POST is a firmware startup activity, not a normal stage of every CPU instruction cycle.
• Some instructions then write a result to a register or memory during a write-back/store stage.
• POST is a firmware startup activity, not a normal stage of every CPU instruction cycle.
వివరణ:
Question 188
ప్రశ్న 188
Which Excel feature is most appropriate for restricting a Status cell to the entries Open, Pending and Closed through a drop-down list?
Explanation:
• Data Validation can restrict entries to an approved list.
• A List rule can provide a drop-down containing the allowed statuses.
• Goal Seek and Freeze Panes solve unrelated problems.
• A List rule can provide a drop-down containing the allowed statuses.
• Goal Seek and Freeze Panes solve unrelated problems.
వివరణ:
Question 189
ప్రశ్న 189
Which Windows console is most appropriate for starting, stopping and configuring the startup type of background services?
Explanation:
• The Services console manages Windows services and their startup behavior.
• Administrators can inspect service status, dependencies and startup type there.
• Disk Management and Device Manager address storage and hardware respectively.
• Administrators can inspect service status, dependencies and startup type there.
• Disk Management and Device Manager address storage and hardware respectively.
వివరణ:
Question 190
ప్రశ్న 190
Host A is 10.0.1.70/26 and Host B is 10.0.1.130/26. Which statement is correct?
Explanation:
• A /26 divides the final octet into blocks of 64: 0–63, 64–127, 128–191 and 192–255.
• 70 belongs to 10.0.1.64/26, while 130 belongs to 10.0.1.128/26.
• Communication between them therefore requires routing under ordinary IPv4 subnet rules.
• 70 belongs to 10.0.1.64/26, while 130 belongs to 10.0.1.128/26.
• Communication between them therefore requires routing under ordinary IPv4 subnet rules.
వివరణ:
Question 191
ప్రశ్న 191
A PC reaches the Windows Recovery Environment but Windows will not start normally. Which built-in tool is specifically designed to diagnose and repair certain startup problems?
Explanation:
• Startup Repair is a Windows recovery tool aimed at boot-related problems.
• It can repair certain startup files and configuration issues automatically.
• Office features are unrelated to operating-system boot repair.
• It can repair certain startup files and configuration issues automatically.
• Office features are unrelated to operating-system boot repair.
వివరణ:
Question 192
ప్రశ్న 192
Which Access data type is designed to generate a unique value automatically for each new record and is commonly used for surrogate primary keys?
Explanation:
• AutoNumber generates a unique value for new records.
• It is commonly used as a primary-key field when a natural key is unnecessary.
• Its purpose is uniqueness rather than monetary, text or file storage.
• It is commonly used as a primary-key field when a natural key is unnecessary.
• Its purpose is uniqueness rather than monetary, text or file storage.
వివరణ:
Question 193
ప్రశ్న 193
What is the primary purpose of a device driver?
Explanation:
• Drivers translate operating-system requests into device-specific operations.
• They enable hardware to participate in the operating system's device-management framework.
• A missing or faulty driver can prevent otherwise functional hardware from operating correctly.
• They enable hardware to participate in the operating system's device-management framework.
• A missing or faulty driver can prevent otherwise functional hardware from operating correctly.
వివరణ:
Question 194
ప్రశ్న 194
Match List I with List II:
List I
(a) CPU socket
(b) DIMM slot
(c) PCI Express slot
(d) SATA connector
List II
1. Connects a compatible processor
2. Accepts system memory modules
3. Provides expansion connectivity for devices such as graphics or network cards
4. Connects SATA storage devices
Choose the correct matching code.
List I
(a) CPU socket
(b) DIMM slot
(c) PCI Express slot
(d) SATA connector
List II
1. Connects a compatible processor
2. Accepts system memory modules
3. Provides expansion connectivity for devices such as graphics or network cards
4. Connects SATA storage devices
Choose the correct matching code.
Explanation:
• Each motherboard interface is designed for a different hardware class.
• CPU sockets and DIMM slots are not interchangeable with expansion or storage connectors.
• Correct physical and electrical compatibility is essential during PC assembly.
• CPU sockets and DIMM slots are not interchangeable with expansion or storage connectors.
• Correct physical and electrical compatibility is essential during PC assembly.
వివరణ:
Question 195
ప్రశ్న 195
Assertion (A): The use of interrupts can reduce the need for a CPU to continuously poll an I/O device for completion.
Reason (R): An interrupt allows a device or controller to signal the processor when service is required.
Choose the correct answer.
Reason (R): An interrupt allows a device or controller to signal the processor when service is required.
Choose the correct answer.
Explanation:
• Interrupt-driven I/O lets the processor perform other work instead of repeatedly checking device status.
• The interrupt signal requests processor attention when an event occurs.
• Both statements are true, and the Reason directly explains the Assertion.
• The interrupt signal requests processor attention when an event occurs.
• Both statements are true, and the Reason directly explains the Assertion.
వివరణ:
Question 196
ప్రశ్న 196
Which command checks drive D: and instructs CHKDSK to fix detected file-system errors?
Explanation:
• CHKDSK examines filesystem metadata and related structures.
• The /f parameter instructs it to fix errors on the specified volume.
• FORMAT creates a filesystem rather than repairing an existing one.
• The /f parameter instructs it to fix errors on the specified volume.
• FORMAT creates a filesystem rather than repairing an existing one.
వివరణ:
Question 197
ప్రశ్న 197
Which statement about ROM-family memories is INCORRECT?
Which statement is INCORRECT?
Which statement is INCORRECT?
Explanation:
• PROM is normally programmed once rather than repeatedly erased and rewritten.
• EEPROM is the electrically erasable member of the ROM family.
• The distinction among PROM, EPROM and EEPROM is a common exam comparison.
• EEPROM is the electrically erasable member of the ROM family.
• The distinction among PROM, EPROM and EEPROM is a common exam comparison.
వివరణ:
Question 198
ప్రశ్న 198
Assertion (A): Using mixed references can allow one part of a cell reference to change during copying while another part remains fixed.
Reason (R): Excel treats a dollar sign before a column or row as an instruction to make that component absolute.
Choose the correct answer.
Reason (R): Excel treats a dollar sign before a column or row as an instruction to make that component absolute.
Choose the correct answer.
Explanation:
• Mixed references combine one absolute component with one relative component.
• The dollar sign fixes only the component it precedes.
• The Reason directly explains the behavior described in the Assertion.
• The dollar sign fixes only the component it precedes.
• The Reason directly explains the behavior described in the Assertion.
వివరణ:
Question 199
ప్రశ్న 199
Match List I with List II:
List I
(a) Keyboard
(b) Mouse
(c) Scanner
(d) Monitor
List II
1. Text and command input
2. Pointing and selection input
3. Converts paper documents/images to digital form
4. Visual output display
Choose the correct matching code.
List I
(a) Keyboard
(b) Mouse
(c) Scanner
(d) Monitor
List II
1. Text and command input
2. Pointing and selection input
3. Converts paper documents/images to digital form
4. Visual output display
Choose the correct matching code.
Explanation:
• Keyboard, mouse and scanner are input devices serving different capture methods.
• A monitor is an output device that displays visual information.
• Device–function matching is a basic but important hardware-identification skill.
• A monitor is an output device that displays visual information.
• Device–function matching is a basic but important hardware-identification skill.
వివరణ:
Question 200
ప్రశ్న 200
Consider the following statements about PC power connections:
Which statement is INCORRECT?
Which statement is INCORRECT?
Explanation:
• RJ45 is associated with Ethernet networking, not motherboard power delivery.
• ATX, CPU/EPS and SATA power connectors have distinct power-distribution roles.
• Confusing data/network connectors with power connectors is a common hardware-identification trap.
• ATX, CPU/EPS and SATA power connectors have distinct power-distribution roles.
• Confusing data/network connectors with power connectors is a common hardware-identification trap.
వివరణ:
Answer Key సమాధానాల పట్టిక
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Question 1 ప్రశ్న 1Answer: B. Parameter query సమాధానం: B.
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Question 2 ప్రశ్న 2Answer: B. Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. సమాధానం: B.
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Question 3 ప్రశ్న 3Answer: A. Phantom read సమాధానం: A.
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Question 4 ప్రశ్న 4Answer: B. Laser-based optical pickup సమాధానం: B.
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Question 5 ప్రశ్న 5Answer: B. Sound card or integrated audio interface సమాధానం: B.
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Question 6 ప్రశ్న 6Answer: C. Symmetric cryptography uses shared secret key material, while asymmetric cryptography uses a related public/private key pair. సమాధానం: C.
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Question 7 ప్రశ్న 7Answer: C. Different Odd & Even Pages సమాధానం: C.
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Question 8 ప్రశ్న 8Answer: D. Compare Documents సమాధానం: D.
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Question 9 ప్రశ్న 9Answer: A. Non-repeatable read సమాధానం: A.
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Question 10 ప్రశ్న 10Answer: B. NVMe commonly uses PCI Express connectivity and a protocol designed for non-volatile solid-state storage. సమాధానం: B.
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Question 11 ప్రశ్న 11Answer: C. Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. సమాధానం: C.
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Question 12 ప్రశ్న 12Answer: B. The signer's private key సమాధానం: B.
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Question 13 ప్రశ్న 13Answer: D. Reuse Slides సమాధానం: D.
-
Question 14 ప్రశ్న 14Answer: D. sfc /scannow సమాధానం: D.
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Question 15 ప్రశ్న 15Answer: A. Polling repeatedly checks device status, while interrupt-driven I/O allows a device or controller to notify the CPU when attention is required. సమాధానం: A.
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Question 16 ప్రశ్న 16Answer: A. It helps prevent untrusted boot software from executing by checking boot components against trusted signing information or policy. సమాధానం: A.
-
Question 17 ప్రశ్న 17Answer: B. Use a subform linked to the main form through CaseID. సమాధానం: B.
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Question 18 ప్రశ్న 18Answer: C. 1, 2, 3 and 4 సమాధానం: C.
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Question 19 ప్రశ్న 19Answer: A. Graphics Processing Unit (GPU) సమాధానం: A.
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Question 20 ప్రశ్న 20Answer: B. Second Normal Form (2NF) సమాధానం: B.
-
Question 21 ప్రశ్న 21Answer: D. Validation Rule సమాధానం: D.
-
Question 22 ప్రశ్న 22Answer: D. Place the page in its own section using suitable section breaks, then set that section to landscape. సమాధానం: D.
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Question 23 ప్రశ్న 23Answer: C. The file bypasses the normal Recycle Bin path, so ordinary Recycle Bin restoration is not available. సమాధానం: C.
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Question 24 ప్రశ్న 24Answer: C. It creates a protected virtual communication path across an existing network such as the Internet. సమాధానం: C.
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Question 25 ప్రశ్న 25Answer: D. Presenter View సమాధానం: D.
-
Question 26 ప్రశ్న 26Answer: A. (a)-2, (b)-3, (c)-1, (d)-4 సమాధానం: A.
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Question 27 ప్రశ్న 27Answer: A. Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. సమాధానం: A.
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Question 28 ప్రశ్న 28Answer: D. 0 సమాధానం: D.
-
Question 29 ప్రశ్న 29Answer: D. 12 TB సమాధానం: D.
-
Question 30 ప్రశ్న 30Answer: B. File-system management సమాధానం: B.
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Question 31 ప్రశ్న 31Answer: A. Authenticate the user and use an approved VPN or other secure remote-access mechanism to reach the protected intranet service. సమాధానం: A.
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Question 32 ప్రశ్న 32Answer: C. (a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-4 సమాధానం: C.
-
Question 33 ప్రశ్న 33Answer: C. Notes Pages సమాధానం: C.
-
Question 34 ప్రశ్న 34Answer: B. LAN → MAN → WAN సమాధానం: B.
-
Question 35 ప్రశ్న 35Answer: A. 1, 2 and 3 only సమాధానం: A.
-
Question 36 ప్రశ్న 36Answer: C. 2 సమాధానం: C.
-
Question 37 ప్రశ్న 37Answer: B. Crosstab query సమాధానం: B.
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Question 38 ప్రశ్న 38Answer: D. Buffering temporarily stores data to accommodate differences in speed or timing between producers and consumers. సమాధానం: D.
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Question 39 ప్రశ్న 39Answer: D. Format Painter సమాధానం: D.
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Question 40 ప్రశ్న 40Answer: A. Prepare the main document → connect/select recipients → insert merge fields → preview results → Finish & Merge సమాధానం: A.
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Question 41 ప్రశ్న 41Answer: C. 2,073,600 pixels సమాధానం: C.
-
Question 42 ప్రశ్న 42Answer: D. 1, 2 and 3 only సమాధానం: D.
-
Question 43 ప్రశ్న 43Answer: C. Different First Page సమాధానం: C.
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Question 44 ప్రశ్న 44Answer: B. It should be blocked. సమాధానం: B.
-
Question 45 ప్రశ్న 45Answer: C. False positive సమాధానం: C.
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Question 46 ప్రశ్న 46Answer: C. SRAM is generally faster and more expensive per bit, while DRAM is denser and requires refresh. సమాధానం: C.
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Question 47 ప్రశ్న 47Answer: B. UEFI/BIOS boot priority or boot-manager entry for the intended SSD సమాధానం: B.
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Question 48 ప్రశ్న 48Answer: D. KVM switch సమాధానం: D.
-
Question 49 ప్రశ్న 49Answer: B. Durability సమాధానం: B.
-
Question 50 ప్రశ్న 50Answer: D. 15 సమాధానం: D.
-
Question 51 ప్రశ్న 51Answer: B. Number with Field Size set to Long Integer సమాధానం: B.
-
Question 52 ప్రశ్న 52Answer: D. Threads within the same process commonly share the process address space and resources, while separate processes normally have distinct address spaces. సమాధానం: D.
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Question 53 ప్రశ్న 53Answer: C. Spooling సమాధానం: C.
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Question 54 ప్రశ్న 54Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only సమాధానం: B.
-
Question 55 ప్రశ్న 55Answer: B. PivotTable సమాధానం: B.
-
Question 56 ప్రశ్న 56Answer: D. PCI Express x16 slot సమాధానం: D.
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Question 57 ప్రశ్న 57Answer: D. To provide each process with a logical address space that can be mapped to physical memory and, when necessary, supported by secondary storage. సమాధానం: D.
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Question 58 ప్రశ్న 58Answer: B. Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. సమాధానం: B.
-
Question 59 ప్రశ్న 59Answer: A. Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. సమాధానం: A.
-
Question 60 ప్రశ్న 60Answer: D. Update query సమాధానం: D.
-
Question 61 ప్రశ్న 61Answer: D. Dirty read సమాధానం: D.
-
Question 62 ప్రశ్న 62Answer: C. Navigation Pane సమాధానం: C.
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Question 63 ప్రశ్న 63Answer: C. 8 TB usable and tolerance of any two member-drive failures సమాధానం: C.
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Question 64 ప్రశ్న 64Answer: D. A normal page break always creates a new independently formatted section. సమాధానం: D.
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Question 65 ప్రశ్న 65Answer: D. Freeze Panes సమాధానం: D.
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Question 66 ప్రశ్న 66Answer: C. The operating system saves the execution state of one task and restores another task's state so CPU execution can switch between them. సమాధానం: C.
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Question 67 ప్రశ్న 67Answer: D. Select query సమాధానం: D.
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Question 68 ప్రశ్న 68Answer: A. Run DISM /Online /Cleanup-Image /RestoreHealth, then run sfc /scannow సమాధానం: A.
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Question 69 ప్రశ్న 69Answer: A. 5 సమాధానం: A.
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Question 70 ప్రశ్న 70Answer: C. A running task can never be interrupted by the operating system until it voluntarily gives up the CPU. సమాధానం: C.
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Question 71 ప్రశ్న 71Answer: D. An index can speed suitable searches but consumes storage and adds maintenance overhead when indexed data changes. సమాధానం: D.
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Question 72 ప్రశ్న 72Answer: C. Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. సమాధానం: C.
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Question 73 ప్రశ్న 73Answer: D. Custom Slide Show సమాధానం: D.
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Question 74 ప్రశ్న 74Answer: D. A minimal set of one or more attributes that uniquely identifies each row in a relation. సమాధానం: D.
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Question 75 ప్రశ్న 75Answer: C. 100 సమాధానం: C.
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Question 76 ప్రశ్న 76Answer: C. 1, 2 and 3 only సమాధానం: C.
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Question 77 ప్రశ్న 77Answer: B. It modulates digital information for an analog communication channel and demodulates received signals. సమాధానం: B.
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Question 78 ప్రశ్న 78Answer: C. FAIL సమాధానం: C.
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Question 79 ప్రశ్న 79Answer: A. Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. సమాధానం: A.
-
Question 80 ప్రశ్న 80Answer: C. 1, 2 and 3 only సమాధానం: C.
-
Question 81 ప్రశ్న 81Answer: A. Delete query సమాధానం: A.
-
Question 82 ప్రశ్న 82Answer: B. Its print head physically strikes pins against an inked ribbon and the paper. సమాధానం: B.
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Question 83 ప్రశ్న 83Answer: A. 1, 2 and 4 only సమాధానం: A.
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Question 84 ప్రశ్న 84Answer: A. HTTPS సమాధానం: A.
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Question 85 ప్రశ్న 85Answer: D. 25 సమాధానం: D.
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Question 86 ప్రశ్న 86Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only సమాధానం: B.
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Question 87 ప్రశ్న 87Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only సమాధానం: B.
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Question 88 ప్రశ్న 88Answer: D. Failure of A1 and B1 can be tolerated because A2 and B2 remain, but failure of both A1 and A2 cannot be tolerated. సమాధానం: D.
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Question 89 ప్రశ్న 89Answer: C. Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. సమాధానం: C.
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Question 90 ప్రశ్న 90Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only సమాధానం: B.
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Question 91 ప్రశ్న 91Answer: D. It starts Windows with a limited set of drivers and services, helping isolate problems caused by nonessential software or drivers. సమాధానం: D.
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Question 92 ప్రశ్న 92Answer: A. 3.2 billion cycles సమాధానం: A.
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Question 93 ప్రశ్న 93Answer: D. (a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-4 సమాధానం: D.
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Question 94 ప్రశ్న 94Answer: C. (a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-4 సమాధానం: C.
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Question 95 ప్రశ్న 95Answer: A. 2 సమాధానం: A.
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Question 96 ప్రశ్న 96Answer: A. Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. సమాధానం: A.
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Question 97 ప్రశ్న 97Answer: C. (a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-4 సమాధానం: C.
-
Question 98 ప్రశ్న 98Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only సమాధానం: B.
-
Question 99 ప్రశ్న 99Answer: B. Conditional Formatting సమాధానం: B.
-
Question 100 ప్రశ్న 100Answer: D. Program Counter సమాధానం: D.
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Question 101 ప్రశ్న 101Answer: D. UPS సమాధానం: D.
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Question 102 ప్రశ్న 102Answer: B. Compress Media సమాధానం: B.
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Question 103 ప్రశ్న 103Answer: D. (a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-4 సమాధానం: D.
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Question 104 ప్రశ్న 104Answer: B. It acts as an application-aware intermediary between communicating hosts and can enforce controls at the application level. సమాధానం: B.
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Question 105 ప్రశ్న 105Answer: A. Table of Contents సమాధానం: A.
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Question 106 ప్రశ్న 106Answer: D. Slide Master సమాధానం: D.
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Question 107 ప్రశ్న 107Answer: C. 24-pin ATX motherboard power connector సమాధానం: C.
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Question 108 ప్రశ్న 108Answer: B. =$B6+E$2 సమాధానం: B.
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Question 109 ప్రశ్న 109Answer: A. Two CPU cores always guarantee exactly twice the performance for every possible program. సమాధానం: A.
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Question 110 ప్రశ్న 110Answer: D. To fill microscopic surface gaps and improve heat transfer between the CPU and cooler సమాధానం: D.
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Question 111 ప్రశ్న 111Answer: A. The Internet is a global system of interconnected networks, while an intranet is a private organizational network or information environment intended mainly for authorized users. సమాధానం: A.
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Question 112 ప్రశ్న 112Answer: B. ipconfig /all సమాధానం: B.
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Question 113 ప్రశ్న 113Answer: B. Reseat the modules and test one known-good compatible DIMM at a time in the recommended slot సమాధానం: B.
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Question 114 ప్రశ్న 114Answer: C. 1, 2 and 4 only సమాధానం: C.
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Question 115 ప్రశ్న 115Answer: A. Seek time సమాధానం: A.
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Question 116 ప్రశ్న 116Answer: B. Goal Seek సమాధానం: B.
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Question 117 ప్రశ్న 117Answer: C. 1, 2 and 4 only సమాధానం: C.
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Question 118 ప్రశ్న 118Answer: C. Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. సమాధానం: C.
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Question 119 ప్రశ్న 119Answer: D. Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. సమాధానం: D.
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Question 120 ప్రశ్న 120Answer: C. Deadlock సమాధానం: C.
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Question 121 ప్రశ్న 121Answer: C. 1, 2 and 4 only సమాధానం: C.
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Question 122 ప్రశ్న 122Answer: B. (a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-4 సమాధానం: B.
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Question 123 ప్రశ్న 123Answer: C. (a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-4 సమాధానం: C.
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Question 124 ప్రశ్న 124Answer: A. MICR సమాధానం: A.
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Question 125 ప్రశ్న 125Answer: A. An inkjet places liquid ink droplets on paper, while a laser printer uses toner that is later fused to the paper. సమాధానం: A.
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Question 126 ప్రశ్న 126Answer: D. Authentication establishes confidence in identity, while authorization determines what that authenticated identity is permitted to access or do. సమాధానం: D.
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Question 127 ప్రశ్న 127Answer: A. Track Changes సమాధానం: A.
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Question 128 ప్రశ్న 128Answer: A. (a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-4 సమాధానం: A.
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Question 129 ప్రశ్న 129Answer: D. DMA allows a controller to transfer blocks of data between an I/O device and main memory with limited CPU intervention after setup. సమాధానం: D.
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Question 130 ప్రశ్న 130Answer: D. An RDBMS is a DBMS based on the relational model, while DBMS is the broader category that can include non-relational approaches. సమాధానం: D.
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Question 131 ప్రశ్న 131Answer: A. 1, 2 and 4 only సమాధానం: A.
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Question 132 ప్రశ్న 132Answer: C. RTC/CMOS coin-cell battery సమాధానం: C.
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Question 133 ప్రశ్న 133Answer: B. Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. సమాధానం: B.
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Question 134 ప్రశ్న 134Answer: C. Star topology సమాధానం: C.
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Question 135 ప్రశ్న 135Answer: C. (a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-4 సమాధానం: C.
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Question 136 ప్రశ్న 136Answer: D. A transition affects the change from one slide to another, while an animation affects an object on a slide. సమాధానం: D.
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Question 137 ప్రశ్న 137Answer: A. Source/destination IP addresses, protocol, and transport-layer port information సమాధానం: A.
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Question 138 ప్రశ్న 138Answer: B. 17.6 సమాధానం: B.
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Question 139 ప్రశ్న 139Answer: A. System Restore సమాధానం: A.
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Question 140 ప్రశ్న 140Answer: B. COMMIT సమాధానం: B.
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Question 141 ప్రశ్న 141Answer: A. (a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-4 సమాధానం: A.
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Question 142 ప్రశ్న 142Answer: A. OMR సమాధానం: A.
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Question 143 ప్రశ్న 143Answer: C. A program is passive executable code, while a process is an executing instance with associated state and resources. సమాధానం: C.
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Question 144 ప్రశ్న 144Answer: A. The referenced virtual page is not currently resident as required in physical memory and needs operating-system handling. సమాధానం: A.
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Question 145 ప్రశ్న 145Answer: A. DHCP సమాధానం: A.
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Question 146 ప్రశ్న 146Answer: D. Restrict Editing సమాధానం: D.
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Question 147 ప్రశ్న 147Answer: D. A stateless filter evaluates packets without maintaining per-connection state, while a stateful firewall can use recorded connection state when evaluating traffic. సమాధానం: D.
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Question 148 ప్రశ్న 148Answer: B. (a)-2, (b)-1, (c)-3, (d)-4 సమాధానం: B.
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Question 149 ప్రశ్న 149Answer: C. 1, 2 and 3 only సమాధానం: C.
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Question 150 ప్రశ్న 150Answer: C. It is a virtual table defined by a query whose displayed rows are derived from underlying tables when used. సమాధానం: C.
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Question 151 ప్రశ్న 151Answer: D. Both are non-volatile SSDs, but PCIe/NVMe devices use a different host interface/protocol path and can offer substantially higher throughput than SATA. సమాధానం: D.
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Question 152 ప్రశ్న 152Answer: B. Cache hit సమాధానం: B.
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Question 153 ప్రశ్న 153Answer: A. Starvation సమాధానం: A.
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Question 154 ప్రశ్న 154Answer: A. Record Slide Show సమాధానం: A.
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Question 155 ప్రశ్న 155Answer: B. Verify AC input, PSU switch, 24-pin ATX power, CPU power and front-panel power-switch connection సమాధానం: B.
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Question 156 ప్రశ్న 156Answer: C. OCR సమాధానం: C.
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Question 157 ప్రశ్న 157Answer: C. DDR generations are physically keyed and electrically specified differently, so they are not directly interchangeable. సమాధానం: C.
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Question 158 ప్రశ్న 158Answer: B. Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. సమాధానం: B.
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Question 159 ప్రశ్న 159Answer: D. (a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-4 సమాధానం: D.
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Question 160 ప్రశ్న 160Answer: C. They are in the same 192.168.40.0/24 subnet and can communicate locally without routing through the default gateway. సమాధానం: C.
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Question 161 ప్రశ్న 161Answer: C. To require consent or appropriate credentials before operations that need elevated administrative privileges proceed. సమాధానం: C.
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Question 162 ప్రశ్న 162Answer: B. (a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-4 సమాధానం: B.
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Question 163 ప్రశ్న 163Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only సమాధానం: B.
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Question 164 ప్రశ్న 164Answer: A. (a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-4 సమాధానం: A.
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Question 165 ప్రశ్న 165Answer: B. 500 సమాధానం: B.
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Question 166 ప్రశ్న 166Answer: C. Isolating a suspicious or detected item from normal execution while allowing controlled review, removal or restoration. సమాధానం: C.
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Question 167 ప్రశ్న 167Answer: C. Atomicity సమాధానం: C.
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Question 168 ప్రశ్న 168Answer: A. -8.24 సమాధానం: A.
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Question 169 ప్రశ్న 169Answer: A. Both can use the same web technologies, but access policy and intended audience can differ. సమాధానం: A.
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Question 170 ప్రశ్న 170Answer: D. It produces a fixed-size digest designed as a one-way transformation useful for integrity checking. సమాధానం: D.
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Question 171 ప్రశ్న 171Answer: A. Input Mask సమాధానం: A.
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Question 172 ప్రశ్న 172Answer: D. Animation Pane సమాధానం: D.
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Question 173 ప్రశ్న 173Answer: C. DNS సమాధానం: C.
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Question 174 ప్రశ్న 174Answer: B. District Group Footer సమాధానం: B.
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Question 175 ప్రశ్న 175Answer: A. Read access without modification, because both permission layers apply and the restrictive NTFS permission still limits access. సమాధానం: A.
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Question 176 ప్రశ్న 176Answer: B. Disk Management సమాధానం: B.
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Question 177 ప్రశ్న 177Answer: A. $F$1 సమాధానం: A.
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Question 178 ప్రశ్న 178Answer: A. 1, 2 and 3 only సమాధానం: A.
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Question 179 ప్రశ్న 179Answer: D. Check its state/dependencies in Services and review relevant Event Viewer logs. సమాధానం: D.
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Question 180 ప్రశ్న 180Answer: C. 4 ns సమాధానం: C.
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Question 181 ప్రశ్న 181Answer: D. Find and Replace సమాధానం: D.
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Question 182 ప్రశ్న 182Answer: B. Append query సమాధానం: B.
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Question 183 ప్రశ్న 183Answer: B. Fuser assembly సమాధానం: B.
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Question 184 ప్రశ్న 184Answer: C. DNS or other name-resolution configuration సమాధానం: C.
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Question 185 ప్రశ్న 185Answer: C. 1, 2 and 3 only సమాధానం: C.
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Question 186 ప్రశ్న 186Answer: A. 88 సమాధానం: A.
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Question 187 ప్రశ్న 187Answer: B. Fetch instruction → Decode instruction → Execute operation → Store/write back result as required సమాధానం: B.
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Question 188 ప్రశ్న 188Answer: A. Data Validation using a List సమాధానం: A.
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Question 189 ప్రశ్న 189Answer: A. Services console (services.msc) సమాధానం: A.
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Question 190 ప్రశ్న 190Answer: D. They are in different /26 subnets. సమాధానం: D.
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Question 191 ప్రశ్న 191Answer: B. Startup Repair సమాధానం: B.
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Question 192 ప్రశ్న 192Answer: C. AutoNumber సమాధానం: C.
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Question 193 ప్రశ్న 193Answer: D. To provide the operating system with software needed to communicate with and control a particular hardware device or device class. సమాధానం: D.
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Question 194 ప్రశ్న 194Answer: A. (a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-4 సమాధానం: A.
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Question 195 ప్రశ్న 195Answer: B. Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. సమాధానం: B.
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Question 196 ప్రశ్న 196Answer: A. chkdsk D: /f సమాధానం: A.
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Question 197 ప్రశ్న 197Answer: B. PROM is designed to be repeatedly erased electrically and rewritten like EEPROM. సమాధానం: B.
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Question 198 ప్రశ్న 198Answer: D. Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. సమాధానం: D.
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Question 199 ప్రశ్న 199Answer: A. (a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-4 సమాధానం: A.
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Question 200 ప్రశ్న 200Answer: D. An RJ45 connector is the standard connector used to deliver the motherboard's primary ATX power. సమాధానం: D.
